Inverse Trig Function Derivative (Apostol Section 6.22 #11)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the derivative of the expression \(\text{arccot}{x}-\arctan{1/x}\) and the implications of the Zero-Derivative Theorem. Participants are tasked with proving that this expression cannot equal a constant \(C\) for all \(x \ne 0\) and exploring why this does not contradict the theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss verifying the zero derivative and question the implications of the definitions of \(\text{arccot}(x)\) as presented by different sources. There is exploration of the conditions under which \(\arctan{\frac{1}{x}}\) may take on different values based on the interval of \(y\).

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants examining the definitions of inverse trigonometric functions and their implications. Some have noted the discontinuity at \(x=0\) and how it affects the application of the zero derivative theorem, suggesting a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of differing definitions for \(\text{arccot}(x)\) between sources, which may affect the conclusions drawn. The discussion also highlights the need to consider discontinuities in the context of the problem.

process91
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Homework Statement


Given that [itex]\frac{d}{dx} (\text{arccot}{x}-\arctan{1/x})=0 \hspace{10mm} \forall x \ne 0[/itex],
prove that there is no constant C such that [itex]\text{arccot}{x}-\arctan{\frac{1}{x}}=C \hspace{10mm} \forall x \ne 0[/itex]
and explain why this does not contradict the zero-derivative theorem.


Homework Equations


The Zero-Derivative Theorem:
If f'(x) = 0 for each x in an open interval I, then f is constant on I.


The Attempt at a Solution


The first part of this problem has you verify that the derivative is indeed zero, which I did verify. I think that [itex]\text{arccot}{x}-\arctan{\frac{1}{x}}=0 \hspace{10mm} \forall x \ne 0[/itex], however, since [itex]\text{arccot}{x}=y \implies x=\cot{y} \implies \frac{1}{x} = \tan{y} \implies \arctan{\frac{1}{x}}=y[/itex].

WolframAlpha seems to agree:
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=arccot(x)+-+arctan(1/x)

So is Apostol not considering 0 a constant (that is, when he refers to "a constant C", is C necessarily not equal to 0)?
 
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OK, so the reason my "proof" that it is equal to zero doesn't work is in the last step, where [itex]\arctan{\frac{1}{x}}[/itex] may equal y (if [itex]y\in(0,\frac{\pi}{2})[/itex]), or it may equal [itex]y-\pi[/itex], correct?

Then the reason that this is not a contradiction of the zero derivative theorem is that at x=0 there is a discontinuity, and on either side of 0 it would apply but the constants are not equal.
 
Indeed!
 
Thanks for your help! I'm loving Apostol's book so far.
 
process91 said:
Thanks for your help! I'm loving Apostol's book so far.

It's one of my favorite books as well :biggrin:
 

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