Is a Mapping Between Lie Algebras an Isomorphism if it Takes a Basis to a Basis?

Ted123
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If a mapping between Lie algebras \varphi : \mathfrak{g} \to \mathfrak{h} takes a basis in \mathfrak{g} to a basis in \mathfrak{h} is it an isomorphism of vector spaces?
 
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Good question. What do you think?
 


Office_Shredder said:
Good question. What do you think?

I'm fairly sure it is. Is that right?
 


Assuming that by "takes a basis to a basis" you mean "one to one and onto", a Lie Algebra is completely determined by its basis, isn't it?
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...

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