I'm not sure if that comment was sarcasm or a way to get me to think in a more logical sense but i'll explain what I can in hopes it clears up any confusion on what I am asking. I'm coming here for help and motivation. I might be completely confused and not understand properly but I feel I do and this what I understand:
Well I know I can show F is irrotational in any vector field when I have F(x,y,z)=<f(x), g(y), h(z)> while vectors of the form F(x,y,z)=<f(y,z)b g(x,z), h(x,y)> are incompressible by calculating curlF and observing that F does not depend on y or z, g does not depend on x or z, and h does not depend on x or y. As a result the curl is zero; curlF=0 (irrotational). And if f is a conservative vector field then, Py=Qz, Rx=Pz, & Qx=Py.
Also it would be incompressible when divF=0. So, divF= ∂/∂x(f(y,z))+ ∂/∂y(g(x,z)) + ∂/∂z(h(x,y))=0; since the derivatives are being taken with respect to varibles on which the respectivr functions do not depend then we can see for sure divF=0 where F is incompressible.
So given their relationship, div(curlF)=0, and knowning curlF=0 means F is a vector field and also means F is irrotational, does that also mean that every conservative vector field is incompressible?