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I'm just wondering if this is a legitimate proof by induction.
Prove, for all natural numbers n, that 2^n>n
Proof. For n=0, 2^0=1>0 and for n=1, 2^1=2>1. Similarly, if n=2, then 2^2=4>2. Now assume n>2 and we have proven the result for n-1. We must show it is true for n.
We have:
<br /> 2^{n-1}>n-1<br />
<br /> 2^n>2(n-1)=(n-1)+(n-1)>(n-1)+1=n<br />
The last inequality follows from the fact that n>2.
I'm worried about the fact that I have more than one base case. Is this still alright?
Prove, for all natural numbers n, that 2^n>n
Proof. For n=0, 2^0=1>0 and for n=1, 2^1=2>1. Similarly, if n=2, then 2^2=4>2. Now assume n>2 and we have proven the result for n-1. We must show it is true for n.
We have:
<br /> 2^{n-1}>n-1<br />
<br /> 2^n>2(n-1)=(n-1)+(n-1)>(n-1)+1=n<br />
The last inequality follows from the fact that n>2.
I'm worried about the fact that I have more than one base case. Is this still alright?
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