Is int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy always a negative value?

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Take int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy over all y. Where F is a complex function

Let A=x-y/2

dA/dy=-1/2 => dy=-2dA

So -2int(F*(A)F(A))dA = int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy

but int(F*(A)F(A))dA >0 so is int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy but from the result it looks as if int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy<0

What is going on?
 
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Isn't there a -2 somewhere in the new integral?
 
pivoxa15 said:
Take int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy over all y. Where F is a complex function

Let A=x-y/2

dA/dy=-1/2 => dy=-2dA

So -2int(F*(A)F(A))dA = int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy

but int(F*(A)F(A))dA >0 so is int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy but from the result it looks as if int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy<0

What is going on?
What happened to your limits of integration? Replacing a function of y by a function of A will "reverse" the limits of integration.
 
Right. Good one.
 
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