Is the physical law unit-free?

In summary, we have tried to determine if the physical law is unit-free, but it turns out that it cannot be unit-free due to a mixture of quantities with different units. However, we can check if it is dimensionally consistent, and in this case it is not. It is recommended to double-check the equation and units to determine if the physical law is valid.
  • #1
evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

A small sphere with radius $1$ and density $p$ moves downwards with constant velocity $v$, under the influence of the gravity $g$, at a liquid of density $p_l$ and viscosity coefficient $\mu$. (The units of $\mu$ are mass per unit of length per unit of time). From results of experiments, we get the relation:

$v=\frac{2}{9} r^2 p g \mu^{-1} \left( 1-\frac{p_l}{p} \right)$

I want to check if the physical law $v=\frac{2}{9} r^2 p g \mu^{-1} \left( 1-\frac{p_l}{p} \right)$ is unit-free.

I have tried the following:

The physical law is: $f(v,r,p,g,p_l, \mu)=v-\frac{2}{9} r^2 p g \mu^{-1} \left( 1-\frac{p_l}{p} \right)$.

The quantities are:

Length: $L$
Time: $T$
Mass: $M$

So:

$[v]=LT^{-1}$
$[r]=L$
$[p]=ML^{-3}$
$[g]=M$
$[p_l]=ML^{-3}$
$[\mu]=LT^{-1}$

Let $\lambda_1, \lambda_2, \lambda_3>0$ and we consider the transformation of system of units:$$\overline{L}=\lambda_1 L, \ \overline{T}=\lambda_2 T, \ \overline{M}=\lambda_3 M $$

Then:

$[v]=\lambda_1L(\lambda_2T)^{-1}$
$[r]=\lambda_1L$
$[p]=\lambda_3M(\lambda_1L)^{-3}$
$[g]=\lambda_3M$
$[p_l]=\lambda_3M(\lambda_1L)^{-3}$
$[\mu]=\lambda_1L(\lambda_2T)^{-1}$

$$f(\overline{v}, \overline{r}, \overline{p}, \overline{g}, \overline{p_l}, \overline{\mu})=\overline{u}-\frac{2}{9} \overline{r}^2 \overline{p} \overline{g} \overline{\mu}^{-1} \left(1-\frac{p_l}{\overline{p}} \right)=\lambda_1 (\lambda_2)^{-1}u-\frac{2}{9} \lambda_1^2 r^2 \lambda_3 \lambda_1^{-3} \lambda_3 \lambda_1^{-1} \lambda_2 p g \mu^{-1} \left( 1-\frac{\lambda_3 \lambda_1^{-3} p_l}{\lambda_3 \lambda_1^{-3}p}\right)=\lambda_1 (\lambda_2)^{-1}u-\frac{2}{9} \lambda_1^{-1} \lambda_3^3 \lambda_2 r^2 p g \mu^{-1} \left( 1-\frac{p_l}{p}\right)$$

Is it right? If so, do we deduce that the physical law isn't unit-free?
Or have I done something wrong? (Thinking)
 
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  • #2


Hello! Great job on trying to determine if the physical law is unit-free. Your approach looks correct, but there are a few things to consider.

First, the transformation of units that you have done is not a general transformation. It only works for length, time, and mass, but there may be other quantities involved in the physical law that have different units. So, we cannot assume that the transformation you have done is applicable to all quantities.

Second, the physical law itself contains a mixture of quantities with different units, such as length, density, and viscosity coefficient. This means that the physical law cannot be unit-free, as there is no way to eliminate all units from the equation.

However, we can check if the physical law is dimensionally consistent, meaning that the units on both sides of the equation are the same. In this case, the units on the left side are $LT^{-1}$, while the units on the right side are $\frac{1}{L^2}M^2$. This means that the physical law is not dimensionally consistent and there may be a mistake in the equation or the units used.

I would recommend double-checking the equation and the units to make sure they are correct. If they are, then the physical law may not be valid. I hope this helps!
 

1. What does it mean for a physical law to be unit-free?

A unit-free physical law is one that does not depend on any specific unit of measurement. This means that the law holds true regardless of the system of units used to measure the physical quantities involved. In other words, the law is independent of the units used to express the quantities in the equation.

2. Why is it important for a physical law to be unit-free?

Having a unit-free physical law allows for the law to be universally applicable and understood. It also makes it easier to manipulate and analyze the equation without having to convert between different units. Additionally, it helps to avoid errors that may arise from using incorrect units in the equation.

3. Are all physical laws unit-free?

No, not all physical laws are unit-free. Some laws, such as the laws of thermodynamics, have units that are inherent to their definitions. However, many fundamental laws, such as Newton's laws of motion and the law of gravitation, are unit-free.

4. How do scientists ensure that a physical law is unit-free?

Scientists ensure that a physical law is unit-free by using dimension analysis. This involves checking the dimensions (such as length, time, mass) of each term in the equation to ensure they are consistent on both sides. If the dimensions do not match, it indicates that the equation is not unit-free and further adjustments may be needed.

5. Can unit-free physical laws still be applied in real-world scenarios?

Yes, unit-free physical laws can still be applied in real-world scenarios. This is because the laws are based on fundamental principles and relationships between physical quantities, rather than specific units of measurement. As long as the dimensions are consistent, the law will hold true regardless of the units used to measure the quantities.

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