Is there a general method for solving Fredholm integral equations?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on solving a Fredholm integral equation of the first kind, where the goal is to find a probability distribution function P given a known kernel K and a constant C. Participants express confusion regarding the relationship between the constant C and the variables in the kernel, particularly how K can depend on those variables while C remains constant. A proposed method involves transforming the original kernel into a new one to satisfy the equation's constraints. The conversation highlights the challenge of having a continuous function P with a single scalar value C, indicating an underdetermined problem. Overall, the complexity of the integral equation and the interplay between its components are emphasized.
LeonhardEuler
Gold Member
Messages
858
Reaction score
1
Hello Everyone. An interesting equation has come in my thesis research, and I was wondering whether anyone had any useful information about it. It is this equation:
\int_{a_1}^{b_1}...\int_{a_n}^{b_n}P(x_1,...x_n)K(x_1,...x_n,s_1...s_n)dx_1...dx_n=C
K is a known function of the x's and s's. C is an unknown constant. P is a probability distribution and so subject to
\int_{a_1}^{b_1}...\int_{a_n}^{b_n}P(x_1,...x_n)dx_1...dx=1
P(x_1,...x_n)\ge 0
The goal is to find P. I found this Wikipedia page:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fredholm_integral_equation
So I see that this is a Fredholm integral equation of the first kind. However, none of the theorems they present have any clear relevance to helping solve this equation, and there is nothing about how to impose the probability conditions.

It would be great if there was a general method for a numerical solution of these equations, and it would be good to know about analytic solutions in certain cases. A general analytic solution is probably too much to hope for. A way to transform this to a differential equation would also be good, since I know more about those.
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
I'm a little confused at this specific equation; are you sure C is a constant and not dependant on s1, s2, ... sn? If you are, then how can K depend on s1, s2, ... sn?
 
MikeyW said:
I'm a little confused at this specific equation; are you sure C is a constant and not dependant on s1, s2, ... sn? If you are, then how can K depend on s1, s2, ... sn?

Yes, I am sure, and this is a question I get from a lot of people I have shown this to. Here is an example of a solution to the equation in one dimension:
F(x,s)=\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{(b-a)e^{-\frac{(x-s)^2}{2\sigma^2}}}{\sigma[erf(\frac{s-a}{\sqrt{2}\sigma})+erf(\frac{b-s}{\sqrt{2}\sigma})]}
P(x)=\frac{1}{b-a}
C=1
Given any K and P that don't solve the problem because they give f(s) instead of C, you can always generate a solved version of the problem (though not the one you are trying to solve) by dividing K by f(s).
 
I think you've lost me, what's F, a, b?

The last sentence also went over my head; am I right in saying that because C is a constant, dK/ds1 = dK/ds2 = ... = dK/dsn = 0? I don't think you'd be asking if it were, but I can't comprehend how the RHS is constant yet the LHS depends on a set of variables.

On a more fundamental level, it seems like you have a very large space of unknowns (a continuous function P) and a single scalar known value C. It would seem to be vastly underdetermined.
 
MikeyW said:
I think you've lost me, what's F, a, b?

The last sentence also went over my head; am I right in saying that because C is a constant, dK/ds1 = dK/ds2 = ... = dK/dsn = 0? And your problem is essentially an integral? I don't think you'd be asking if it were, but I can't comprehend how the RHS is constant yet the LHS depends on a set of variables.

Really sorry about that. I meant
K(x,s)=\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{(b-a)e^{-\frac{(x-s)^2}{2\sigma^2}}}{\sigma[erf(\frac{s-a}{\sqrt{2}\sigma})+erf(\frac{b-s}{\sqrt{2}\sigma})]}
And a and b are the limits of integration in the original problem, with the subscripts dropped because this is a 1D case.

Let me clarify what I meant before with the last sentence. Suppose
\int_{a_1}^{b_1}...\int_{a_n}^{b_n}P(x_1,...x_n)K(x_1,...x_n,s_1...s_n) dx_1...dx_n=f(s_1,...s_n)
Then define
K_{new}(x_1,...x_n,s_1,...s_n)=\frac{K(x_1,...x_n,s_1,...s_n)}{f(s_1,...s_n)}
Then
\int_{a_1}^{b_1}...\int_{a_n}^{b_n}P(x_1,...x_n)K_{new}(x_1,...x_n,s_1...s_n) dx_1...dx_n=1
From this you see that the derivatives of K with respect to the s variables are not necessarily 0. Unless I'm still unclear. Thanks for taking the time to look at this.
 
Also, here is another simple example of the same counter intuitive kind of thing. Suppose
\int_{0}^{\infty}f(x,s)dx=1
for all s>0. You might think that
\frac{\partial f}{\partial s}=0
But suppose
f(x,s)=se^{-sx}
Then
\int_{0}^{\infty}se^{-sx}dx=1
but
\frac{\partial f}{\partial s}=-s^2e^{-sx}+e^{-sx}
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Suppose ,instead of the usual x,y coordinate system with an I basis vector along the x -axis and a corresponding j basis vector along the y-axis we instead have a different pair of basis vectors ,call them e and f along their respective axes. I have seen that this is an important subject in maths My question is what physical applications does such a model apply to? I am asking here because I have devoted quite a lot of time in the past to understanding convectors and the dual...
Thread 'Imaginary Pythagoras'
I posted this in the Lame Math thread, but it's got me thinking. Is there any validity to this? Or is it really just a mathematical trick? Naively, I see that i2 + plus 12 does equal zero2. But does this have a meaning? I know one can treat the imaginary number line as just another axis like the reals, but does that mean this does represent a triangle in the complex plane with a hypotenuse of length zero? Ibix offered a rendering of the diagram using what I assume is matrix* notation...

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
16
Views
4K
Replies
125
Views
19K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Back
Top