Is \(\vec{\nabla}^2 \vec{E}\) a Dot or Vector Product?

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Is \vec{\nabla^{2}} \vec{E} a dot or a vector product?
 
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Do you mean \nabla ^2 V?
 
Whenever you take the Laplacian of a vector, its shorthand for

\hat{x} \frac{\partial ^2 E_x}{\partial x}+\hat{y} \frac{\partial ^2 E_y}{\partial y}+\hat{z} \frac{\partial ^2 E_z}{\partial z}

in Cartesian coordinates and the definition in curvilinear coordinates is similar.
 
How can I then use Maxwell's equations to derive the wave equations for EM waves?
 
There is no need to use the above definition for that...

Just use the rules for vector second derivatives and look at

\vec{\nabla} \times (\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{E})

and

\vec{\nabla} \times (\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{B})...you will need to use maxwell's equations and the continuity equation.
 
\vec{\nabla} \times (\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{E}) = ?
 
There is a rule that will help you determine that; it should be in your text somewhere (possibly even inside the front cover!)
 
Thanks!

And one more question:

Why can \vec{\nabla} \times (-\partial B / \partial t) be written (-\partial/ \partial t)\vec{\nabla}\times B
 
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kasse said:
Thanks!

And one more question:

Why can \vec{\nabla} \times (-\partial B / \partial t) be written (-\partial/ \partial t)\vec{\nabla}\times B

Because \vec{\nabla} represents a spatial derivative, and since space and time are assumed to be independent for classical E&M, it doesn't matter whether you take the time derivative before the spatial derivative, or vice versa.
 
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