is undefined, because one cannot divide in the ring F[x, y]. And because x²/y² is undefined, so is the expression (x²/y²).
We're usually more generous with notation, though; rather than leave x²/y² undefined, we implicitly shift our attention to the field F(x, y), which does contain an element by that name.
Where did this come from?
#3
matness
90
0
the origin of my question:i have to prove F[x,y]/(x^2/y^2) is a vector space it seemed a bit meaningless anddid not remember fraction fields
probably it was F(x,y)/(x^2/y^2) and i misread it
sorry
It is well known that a vector space always admits an algebraic (Hamel) basis. This is a theorem that follows from Zorn's lemma based on the Axiom of Choice (AC).
Now consider any specific instance of vector space. Since the AC axiom may or may not be included in the underlying set theory, might there be examples of vector spaces in which an Hamel basis actually doesn't exist ?