Is y(t) Time-Invariant? Debating an Elementary Question

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The discussion revolves around whether the system defined by y(t) = d/dt[e^(-t)x(t)] is time-invariant (TI). The original poster argues that the system is not TI, providing a proof that shows y(t+t_0) does not equal y_1(t) when the input is shifted. They further test the claim by substituting x(t) with a specific function, concluding that the outputs differ, reinforcing their argument against TI. Responses indicate agreement with the original poster's reasoning, supporting the conclusion that the system is indeed time-variant. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding time invariance in systems defined by differential equations.
WolfOfTheSteps
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Note: I posted this a month ago in the homework forum, but never got a reply. It really is an elementary question, and I think someone here might know the answer. (I hope I don't get an infraction for the re-post! If it's inappropriate, please delete.)

Homework Statement



Show that

y(t) = \frac{d}{dt}\left[e^{-t}x(t)\right]

is time invariant.

2. Relevant Information

I don't think this is TI! I'm told it is TI, but I think I proved that it is not TI! My proof is below. Am I wrong or is the question wrong in assuming that the system is TI?

The Attempt at a Solution



Let y_1 be the output when x(t+t_0) is the input, then:

y_1(t) = \frac{d}{dt}\left[e^{-t}x(t+t_0)\right]

but

y(t+t_0) = \frac{d}{dt}\left[e^{-(t+t_0)}x(t+t_0)\right] = e^{-t_0}\frac{d}{dt}\left[e^{-t}x(t+t_0)\right]

Therefore y_1(t) \neq y(t+t_0) and the system is not time invariant.

\Box

Also, just to make sure I wasn't missing some subtlety because of the differentiation I tried to prove this another way.

Since x(t) is arbitrary, I assumed x(t)=t, so that:

y(t)=\frac{d}{dt}[te^{-t}] = e^{-t}-te^{-t}

Now I time shift the system by 2:

y(t+2) = e^{-(t+2)}-(t+2)e^{-(t+2)}=e^{-2}\left[e^{-t}-(t+2)e^{-t}\right]

Now I let y_1(t) be the output when the input is x(t+2)=t+2:

y_1(t) = \frac{d}{dt}[(t+2)e^{-t}] = e^{-t}-(t+2)e^{-t}

Clearly, then, y(t+2)\neq y_1(t) and the system is not TI for x(t)=t, and hence cannot be TI for arbitrary x(t).

\Box

So, if it is TI, what am I doing wrong? And how would I prove that it is TI?
 
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WolfOfTheSteps said:
(I hope I don't get an infraction

Infraction?! You optimist! Nay! A banning, at the least! Begone, beast!

By the way, it's nice to see that you got your username fixed. :biggrin:
 
The first proof is a bit heavy for me at this time of night... but the second seems to me that you have correctly proven it time variant. I'm no genius though... just letting you know i can't see any problem with your reasoning ;)
 
Um, please note when the last post was dated before posting.
 
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