- #1

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- 0

f(x, y ,z) over dS, where

x = x(u, v)

y = y(u, v)

z = z(u, v)

dS is equal to ||

**r**

_{u}X

**r**

_{v}|| dA

Why don't we use the jacobian here when we change coordinate systems?

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- Thread starter IniquiTrance
- Start date

- #1

- 190

- 0

f(x, y ,z) over dS, where

x = x(u, v)

y = y(u, v)

z = z(u, v)

dS is equal to ||

Why don't we use the jacobian here when we change coordinate systems?

- #2

HallsofIvy

Science Advisor

Homework Helper

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- #3

- 190

- 0

Thanks for the response.

- #4

- 190

- 0

Would the Jacobian be used if:

x = x(u, v, w)

y = y(u, v, w)

z = z(u, v, w)

?

x = x(u, v, w)

y = y(u, v, w)

z = z(u, v, w)

?

- #5

HallsofIvy

Science Advisor

Homework Helper

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- 969

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