- #1
IniquiTrance
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Why is it that when we evaluate a surface integral of:
f(x, y ,z) over dS, where
x = x(u, v)
y = y(u, v)
z = z(u, v)
dS is equal to ||r_{u} X r_{v}|| dA
Why don't we use the jacobian here when we change coordinate systems?
f(x, y ,z) over dS, where
x = x(u, v)
y = y(u, v)
z = z(u, v)
dS is equal to ||r_{u} X r_{v}|| dA
Why don't we use the jacobian here when we change coordinate systems?