Klein-Gordon Approximation Question

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on approximating the Klein-Gordon equation under the conditions of weak potential and low energy, specifically when |V| << m and |\epsilon| << m, where \(\epsilon = E - m\). Participants confirm that the Klein-Gordon equation can be simplified to resemble the Schrödinger equation by applying Taylor expansion and algebraic manipulation. Key steps include dividing the equation by \(m^2\), performing a Taylor expansion, and retaining only first-order terms. The final approximation leads to the equation \(\left[-\nabla^2 + 2mV \right] \psi = 2m\epsilon \psi\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Klein-Gordon equation and its components
  • Familiarity with Taylor series expansion techniques
  • Knowledge of Schrödinger equation fundamentals
  • Basic algebraic manipulation skills in quantum mechanics
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  • Study the derivation of the Klein-Gordon equation and its physical implications
  • Learn about Taylor series and their applications in quantum mechanics
  • Explore the relationship between the Klein-Gordon equation and the Schrödinger equation
  • Investigate the role of potential energy in quantum field theory
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Students and researchers in theoretical physics, particularly those focusing on quantum mechanics and field theory, will benefit from this discussion.

div curl F= 0
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I'd be greatful for a bit of help on this question, can't seem to get the answer to pop out:

A particle moving in a potential V is described by the Klein-Gordon equation:

\left[-(E-V)^2 -\nabla^2 + m^2 \right] \psi = 0

Consider the limit where the potential is weak and the energy is low:
|V| &lt;&lt; m \;;\; |\epsilon| &lt;&lt; m \;;\; \epsilon = E - m

Show that in this limit the KG equation can be approximated by the Schrödinger equation:

\left[-\nabla^2 + 2mV \right] \psi = 2m\epsilon \psi

--------------


It seems that a taylor expansion is required or other approximation is needed to get the factors of 2 but I've tried several now and can't seem to make the answer.

Any help much appreciated.
 
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Divide the original equation by m^2, and Taylor expand. Of course E is of order m, so keep that in mind when you divide by "large" things.
 
Last edited:
Sorry, divide everything through by E, then V/E is small and you can Taylor expand the square and drop the term V^2/E^2. Now multiply through by E again and divide by m?
 
No need for Taylor expansions, just algebra, keep stuff of 1st order of smallness, expand the square;

E^2 -> m^2 + 2m\epsilon
2EV -> 2mV
V^2 -> 0

Stick that in and you get it.
 
Last edited:
Uhm, heh, about the Taylor expand thing... "If all you have is a hammer then everything looks like a nail", it doesn't bother me that it's already a polynomial =)
 

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