Kronig-Penney Model Homework Solution

  • Thread starter Thread starter lightfalcon
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Model
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving homework problems related to the Kronig-Penney model, specifically addressing the energy of electrons in a one-dimensional periodic lattice. The participant successfully demonstrated that E(k) approaches the energy of a free electron at high energies. For Part B, they identified that the lowest possible energy is above zero due to the constraints of the cosine function in the equation. In Part C, they derived an equation for the band gap at k = π/d but encountered difficulties in simplifying the expression and understanding the parameters involved.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Kronig-Penney model
  • Familiarity with solid state physics concepts
  • Knowledge of wave functions and energy bands
  • Ability to manipulate trigonometric equations
NEXT STEPS
  • Review McKelvey's Solid State Physics, particularly section 8.3 for insights on the Kronig-Penney model
  • Learn about the implications of band gaps in semiconductor physics
  • Study the mathematical derivation of energy bands in periodic potentials
  • Explore numerical methods for solving implicit equations in solid state physics
USEFUL FOR

Students studying solid state physics, particularly those tackling quantum mechanics and the behavior of electrons in periodic lattices. This discussion is also beneficial for educators and researchers looking for insights into the Kronig-Penney model and its applications.

lightfalcon
Messages
2
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



My homework has to do with the Kronig-Penney model for an electron moving in a 1-D periodic lattice. I already figured out part A, which asked for me to show that E(k) approached the energy of a free electron for electrons with high energies in the lattice.

Part B is asking: Find an expression for the lowest possible energy of an electron. Why isn't this zero?

Part C is asking : find an expression for the band gap at k = pi/d.

Homework Equations



cos(kd)=cos(k_{1}d)+P\frac{sin(k_{1}d)}{k_{1}d}

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm having a lot of trouble with the implicit nature of this equation in this problem. For part B, I know that cos(kd) has to be between +1 and -1, but at lower values of E, the right hand side of the equation is greater than 1, resulting in a band. That's why there is some lowest possible energy above zero. I'm just stuck on showing this numerically.

For Part C, I got
-1=cos(k_{1}d)+P\frac{sin(k_{1}d)}{k_{1}d}
and then
1+P\frac{sin(k_{1}d)}{k_{1}d}=cos(k_{1}d)

but after that I'm stuck and I'm not sure what kind of expression I'm supposed to find for the band gap.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I'm not sure what's hiding in your k1's and P's (is k the same as k1?), but there's a really good treatment of this in McKelvey's Solid State Physics (section 8.3 in my version).
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 20 ·
Replies
20
Views
3K
  • · Replies 30 ·
2
Replies
30
Views
4K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
4K
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
5K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
4K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K