Lagrangian subspaces of symplectic vector spaces

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the properties of Lagrangian subspaces within symplectic vector spaces, specifically addressing the condition that if \( (V, \omega) \) is a symplectic vector space and \( Y \) is a linear subspace with \( \dim Y = \frac{1}{2} \dim V \), then \( Y \) must be Lagrangian, i.e., \( Y = Y^\omega \). The participants explore the implications of dimensionality, concluding that while \( \dim Y^\omega = \frac{1}{2} \dim V \) holds, the assertion that \( Y \) is either isotropic or co-isotropic is not straightforward. A counterexample is provided using \( \mathbb{R}^4 \) with a standard symplectic basis, demonstrating that a two-dimensional subspace can be symplectic without being Lagrangian, thus invalidating the generality of the statement.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of symplectic vector spaces and their properties
  • Familiarity with the concepts of Lagrangian, isotropic, and co-isotropic subspaces
  • Knowledge of linear algebra, particularly dimensions of subspaces
  • Experience with counterexamples in mathematical proofs
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Lagrangian subspaces in symplectic geometry
  • Explore the concept of symplectic complements and their implications
  • Investigate isotropic and co-isotropic subspaces in detail
  • Review counterexamples in linear algebra to strengthen proof techniques
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, particularly those specializing in symplectic geometry, linear algebra students, and researchers exploring the properties of vector spaces and their substructures.

Kreizhn
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Homework Statement


If [itex](V,\omega)[/itex] is a symplectic vector space and Y is a linear subspace with [itex]\dim Y = \frac12 \dim V[/itex] show that Y is Lagrangian; that is, show that [itex]Y = Y^\omega[/itex] where [itex]Y^\omega[/itex] is the symplectic complement.

The Attempt at a Solution



This is driving me crazy since I don't think it should be that hard. If we try to go directly, the fact that [itex]\dim Y = \frac12 \dim V[/itex] implies that [itex]\dim Y^\omega = \frac12 \dim V[/itex]. At this point, it is actually sufficient to show that Y is either isotropic or co-isotropic, since dimensional arguments will give equality. However, I cannot see why this is the case.

On the other hand, if we assume that [itex]Y \neq Y^\omega[/itex] then without loss of generality, we may assume there exists [itex]w \in Y \setminus Y^\omega[/itex] (otherwise, relabel [itex]Y[/itex] and [itex]Y^\omega[/itex]). The space [itex]W = \operatorname{span}(w)[/itex] is isotropic so [itex]W \subseteq W^\omega[/itex] and since [itex]W \subseteq Y[/itex] then [itex]Y^\omega \subseteq W^\omega[/itex]. I would like to put this together somehow, but I'm having trouble doing it.
 
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Nevermind. I've concluded that the question as phrased was unsolvable. Indeed, consider [itex]\mathbb R^4[/itex] with the standard symplectic basis [itex]\{x_i,y_i\}[/itex]. The subspace generated by x1 and y1 is two-dimensional, but is in fact symplectic rather than Lagrangian. Hence the statement cannot be true in general.
 

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