Lagrangian subspaces of symplectic vector spaces

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Kreizhn
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Homework Statement


If [itex](V,\omega)[/itex] is a symplectic vector space and Y is a linear subspace with [itex]\dim Y = \frac12 \dim V[/itex] show that Y is Lagrangian; that is, show that [itex]Y = Y^\omega[/itex] where [itex]Y^\omega[/itex] is the symplectic complement.

The Attempt at a Solution



This is driving me crazy since I don't think it should be that hard. If we try to go directly, the fact that [itex]\dim Y = \frac12 \dim V[/itex] implies that [itex]\dim Y^\omega = \frac12 \dim V[/itex]. At this point, it is actually sufficient to show that Y is either isotropic or co-isotropic, since dimensional arguments will give equality. However, I cannot see why this is the case.

On the other hand, if we assume that [itex]Y \neq Y^\omega[/itex] then without loss of generality, we may assume there exists [itex]w \in Y \setminus Y^\omega[/itex] (otherwise, relabel [itex]Y[/itex] and [itex]Y^\omega[/itex]). The space [itex]W = \operatorname{span}(w)[/itex] is isotropic so [itex]W \subseteq W^\omega[/itex] and since [itex]W \subseteq Y[/itex] then [itex]Y^\omega \subseteq W^\omega[/itex]. I would like to put this together somehow, but I'm having trouble doing it.
 
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Nevermind. I've concluded that the question as phrased was unsolvable. Indeed, consider [itex]\mathbb R^4[/itex] with the standard symplectic basis [itex]\{x_i,y_i\}[/itex]. The subspace generated by x1 and y1 is two-dimensional, but is in fact symplectic rather than Lagrangian. Hence the statement cannot be true in general.