Laplace transform of a piecewise function

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fluidistic
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Homework Statement


I must calculate the Laplace transform of the following function:
[itex]f(x)=1[/itex] for [itex]x \in [0,1] \cap [2,3] \cap [4,5] \cap[/itex] ... , [itex]f(x)=0[/itex] otherwise.


Homework Equations


The Laplace transform is [itex]\mathbb{L} [f(x)]=\int _0 ^{\infty} e^{-sx}f(x)dx[/itex].


The Attempt at a Solution


I've applied the formula of the definition of the Laplace transform to the function. It gave me [itex]\mathbb{L} [f(x)] = \int _0 ^1 e^{-sx}dx+\int _2 ^3 e^{-sx}dx+... =\left ( -\frac{1}{s} \right ) (e^{-s\cdot 1} - e^{-s\cdot 0}+e^{-3s}-e^{-2s}+...)=\frac{1}{s} \sum _{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n e^{-ns}[/itex].
What bothers me is that I don't recognize any closed form for this solution, hence the doubt of weather I'm right so far and if I'm missing any simplification.
Any input will be happily received.
 
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fluidistic said:

Homework Statement


I must calculate the Laplace transform of the following function:
[itex]f(x)=1[/itex] for [itex]x \in [0,1] \cap [2,3] \cap [4,5] \cap[/itex] ... , [itex]f(x)=0[/itex] otherwise.


Homework Equations


The Laplace transform is [itex]\mathbb{L} [f(x)]=\int _0 ^{\infty} e^{-sx}f(x)dx[/itex].


The Attempt at a Solution


I've applied the formula of the definition of the Laplace transform to the function. It gave me [itex]\mathbb{L} [f(x)] = \int _0 ^1 e^{-sx}dx+\int _2 ^3 e^{-sx}dx+... =\left ( -\frac{1}{s} \right ) (e^{-s\cdot 1} - e^{-s\cdot 0}+e^{-3s}-e^{-2s}+...)=\frac{1}{s} \sum _{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n e^{-ns}[/itex].
What bothers me is that I don't recognize any closed form for this solution, hence the doubt of weather I'm right so far and if I'm missing any simplification.
Any input will be happily received.
I think you mean ##x \in [0,1] \cup [2,3] \cup \cdots ##. According to what you wrote, f(x)=0 for all x, so F(s)=0.

You can write
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n e^{-ns} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-e^{-s})^n.$$ You should recognize the form of that series.
 
vela said:
I think you mean ##x \in [0,1] \cup [2,3] \cup \cdots ##. According to what you wrote, f(x)=0 for all x, so F(s)=0.
Yes. :blushing:
You can write
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n e^{-ns} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-e^{-s})^n.$$ You should recognize the form of that series.
I see, so the answer would be [itex]\left ( \frac{1}{s} \right ) \left ( \frac{1}{1+e^{-s}} \right )[/itex] right?
Thanks a million for your help!