cathalcummins
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Okay, this is a derivation from Relativistic Quantum Mechanics but the question is purely mathematical in nature.
I presume all you guys are familiar with the Levi-Civita symbol. Well I'll just start the derivation. So we are asked to prove that:
[S^2, S_j] =0
Where
S^2=S^2_1+S^2_2+S^2_3=\sum^{3}_{i=1}S_i S_i
and
[S_i, S_j] = \iota \hbar S_k
where \{i,j,k\} \in \{1,2,3\} and \hbar \in \Re. It is a trivial proof (See Introduction to quantum mechanics - David J Griffiths (Prentice Hall, 1995) p. 146). But in the search for elegant manipulation of the Levi-Civita symbol, my lecturer done a strange thing which confused me and I can't seem to make sense of it.
Right, here goes, we begin by:
[S^2, S_j] =[ \sum^{3}_{i=1}S_i S_i , S_j] =\sum^{3}_{i=1}[ S_i S_i , S_j]
=\sum^{3}_{i=1} (S_i S_i S_j- S_j S_i S_i)
Which may be rewritten as
=\sum^{3}_{i=1} (S_i [S_i ,S_j]+ [S_i ,S_j ] S_i)
And using the commutation relation ships above this becomes:
=\iota \hbar\sum^{3}_{i=1} ( \varepsilon_{ijk}S_i S_k+ \varepsilon_{ijk}S_k S_i)
So far so good? This is a sum over i, but it must hold \forall \{j,k\}\in\{1,2,3\}.
Well now this all makes sense until he does a strange thing. He goes on to say
"However, i,k are dummy variables so we may freely relabel them to obtain:"
=\iota \hbar\sum^{3}_{i=1} ( \varepsilon_{ijk}+ \varepsilon_{kji})S_i S_k
And by the property of \varepsilon_{ijk}+ \varepsilon_{kji}=0 we get the desired result.
Now, don't get me wrong, I use dummy indices in Einstein Notation, but surely you cannot (as flippantly as this anyway) interchange equally i, the index which is being summed over with k which assumes just one value in any given summation and maintain the same summation (in i). Surely, if this were to be done correctly, we would end up with exactly the same expression just with the ks replaces with is? Viz
=\iota \hbar\sum^{3}_{k=1} ( \varepsilon_{kji}S_k S_i+ \varepsilon_{kji}S_i S_k)?
Am I missing something?
I presume all you guys are familiar with the Levi-Civita symbol. Well I'll just start the derivation. So we are asked to prove that:
[S^2, S_j] =0
Where
S^2=S^2_1+S^2_2+S^2_3=\sum^{3}_{i=1}S_i S_i
and
[S_i, S_j] = \iota \hbar S_k
where \{i,j,k\} \in \{1,2,3\} and \hbar \in \Re. It is a trivial proof (See Introduction to quantum mechanics - David J Griffiths (Prentice Hall, 1995) p. 146). But in the search for elegant manipulation of the Levi-Civita symbol, my lecturer done a strange thing which confused me and I can't seem to make sense of it.
Right, here goes, we begin by:
[S^2, S_j] =[ \sum^{3}_{i=1}S_i S_i , S_j] =\sum^{3}_{i=1}[ S_i S_i , S_j]
=\sum^{3}_{i=1} (S_i S_i S_j- S_j S_i S_i)
Which may be rewritten as
=\sum^{3}_{i=1} (S_i [S_i ,S_j]+ [S_i ,S_j ] S_i)
And using the commutation relation ships above this becomes:
=\iota \hbar\sum^{3}_{i=1} ( \varepsilon_{ijk}S_i S_k+ \varepsilon_{ijk}S_k S_i)
So far so good? This is a sum over i, but it must hold \forall \{j,k\}\in\{1,2,3\}.
Well now this all makes sense until he does a strange thing. He goes on to say
"However, i,k are dummy variables so we may freely relabel them to obtain:"
=\iota \hbar\sum^{3}_{i=1} ( \varepsilon_{ijk}+ \varepsilon_{kji})S_i S_k
And by the property of \varepsilon_{ijk}+ \varepsilon_{kji}=0 we get the desired result.
Now, don't get me wrong, I use dummy indices in Einstein Notation, but surely you cannot (as flippantly as this anyway) interchange equally i, the index which is being summed over with k which assumes just one value in any given summation and maintain the same summation (in i). Surely, if this were to be done correctly, we would end up with exactly the same expression just with the ks replaces with is? Viz
=\iota \hbar\sum^{3}_{k=1} ( \varepsilon_{kji}S_k S_i+ \varepsilon_{kji}S_i S_k)?
Am I missing something?