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Liebniz's Rule

  1. Nov 19, 2006 #1
    I have to prove Liebniz's Rule by induction. So the p(1) is just the product rule. I am assuming the p(n) is true. Now when I expand the series for p(n+1) I am stuck. I think I need to collect the terms in the n+1 expansion and show that they are just one term expansion more than the n expansion but I am not getting how.
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 19, 2006 #2

    matt grime

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    If you differentiate something n+1 times, then you've differentiated it n times, then once more, haven't you?
  4. Nov 19, 2006 #3
    Wow. I can't believe that's it. Thanks.
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