Ligand Exchange - are they reversible?

AI Thread Summary
All ligand exchange reactions are generally considered reversible, meaning that the formation of one complex can be influenced by the concentration of ligands present. In the example provided, where the stability constant (Kstab) for [Cu(H2O)6]2+ is +5 and for CuCl4- is +3, it is possible to form the less stable complex (CuCl4-) by significantly increasing the concentration of chloride ions in the solution. This shift in equilibrium can favor the formation of CuCl4-. However, it is important to note that while the equilibrium can be shifted, the kinetics of the reaction may be slow, leading to situations where a complex with a lower stability constant appears to behave as if it is more stable due to the time required for the reaction to reach equilibrium.
jsmith613
Messages
609
Reaction score
0
Are ALL ligand exchange reactions reversible?

Therefore, if the Kstab of one complex is LESS than that of the other complex, would it ONLY be possible to form the LESS stable complex by 'flooding' the mixture with the appropriate ion.

(these values are not real but they illustrate what I mean)
[Cu(H2O)6]2+ - log Kstab - +5
CuCl4- - log Kstab - +3

So to form the CuCl4 I would have to flood a solution of [Cu(H2O)6]2+ with chloride ions to sufficently move the position of eqm to the CuCl4 side

Is this correct
 
Chemistry news on Phys.org
jsmith613 said:
Is this correct

Generally speaking yes, it is just an equilibrium process. Sometimes reaction can be very slow, and even if the stability constants dictate that one ligand should be replaced with the other, it takes so long complex with lower stability constant may behave as a more stable one.
 
It seems like a simple enough question: what is the solubility of epsom salt in water at 20°C? A graph or table showing how it varies with temperature would be a bonus. But upon searching the internet I have been unable to determine this with confidence. Wikipedia gives the value of 113g/100ml. But other sources disagree and I can't find a definitive source for the information. I even asked chatgpt but it couldn't be sure either. I thought, naively, that this would be easy to look up without...
I was introduced to the Octet Rule recently and make me wonder, why does 8 valence electrons or a full p orbital always make an element inert? What is so special with a full p orbital? Like take Calcium for an example, its outer orbital is filled but its only the s orbital thats filled so its still reactive not so much as the Alkaline metals but still pretty reactive. Can someone explain it to me? Thanks!!

Similar threads

Back
Top