Lightning question before the test : )

In summary, to show that the sequence { 4^(n)/n! } converges to zero by the squeeze theorem, one can compare it to the sequence { 4^(n)/n^(n) } and show that the latter goes to zero as n approaches infinity. This can be achieved by using a constant in the denominator, such as 8^n, and showing that for sufficiently large values of n, \frac{4^n}{n!} is less than \frac{4^n}{8^n}.
  • #1
frasifrasi
276
0
How can I show that the sequence { 4^(n)/n! }

converges to zero (by squeeze theorem)??

Thank you! : )
 
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  • #2
frasifrasi said:
How can I show that the sequence { 4^(n)/n! }

converges to zero (by squeeze theorem)??

Thank you! : )

If the Squeeze Theorem is required as part of the proof, how about comparing

[tex]\frac{4^{n}}{n!}[/tex] < [tex]\frac{4^{n}}{n^{n}}[/tex] (for n > 1)

and showing that the latter goes to zero as n--> infinity?
 
  • #3
Minor correction, but the "for n > 1" part isn't correct. You can find the correct value, or just say sufficiently large n.
 
  • #4
as n->infinity n^n>n! so [tex]\frac{4^n}{n!} > \frac{4^{n}}{n^{n}}[/tex].

I think probably the idea being expressed was to use a constant in the denominator instead of n. [tex]\frac{4^n}{8^n}[/tex]. (or any constant^n in the denominator where the constant>4)

[tex]\frac{4^n}{n!}< \frac{4^n}{8^n}[/tex] for large enough n.
 
Last edited:
  • #5
Gib Z said:
Minor correction, but the "for n > 1" part isn't correct. You can find the correct value, or just say sufficiently large n.

Whoops! Quite so -- I was only looking at the denominators. That needs to be n > 2 , doesn't it? (n=3 works...)
 

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