- #1
seang
- 184
- 0
Hello, I'll be online until I get this one completely figured out, so baby steps are for the win here.
Let L1:U->V and L2:U->W be linear transformations, and let L = L2 * L1 be the mapping defined by:
L(u) = L2(L1(u))
for each u which lies in U. Show that L is a linear transformation mapping U into W.
So basically, should I first show that L1(u) is a valid linear transform?, and then show that L2, is, too?
Let L1:U->V and L2:U->W be linear transformations, and let L = L2 * L1 be the mapping defined by:
L(u) = L2(L1(u))
for each u which lies in U. Show that L is a linear transformation mapping U into W.
So basically, should I first show that L1(u) is a valid linear transform?, and then show that L2, is, too?
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