- #1
Tio Barnabe
We are always taught in books that a Lorentz transformation is possible as long as the Lorentz matrices ##\Lambda## in ##\vec{x}{\ }' = \Lambda \vec{x}## are not function of ##\vec{x}##. The reason for this is obvious, since in this way the relation ##t^2 - x^2 - y^2 - z^2 = t'^2 - x'^2 - y'^2, - z'^2## is true.
Nevertheless, I wonder if it's possible to exist a transformation ##\vec{x}{\ }' = \Lambda (\vec{x}) \vec{x}## as long as we do something else. Is it possible?
Nevertheless, I wonder if it's possible to exist a transformation ##\vec{x}{\ }' = \Lambda (\vec{x}) \vec{x}## as long as we do something else. Is it possible?