- #1
Frogeyedpeas
- 80
- 0
Hey guys, I was reading a brief article which described the logarithmic integral for approximating π(x)
in two ways:
∫x/log(x) dx
and
∫1/log(x) dx
I am aware that the second is the actual definition of li(x) but the top is used extremely frequently and upon trying out the top it matches pi(x) very closely so I'm not sure which is correct or if both are in the running for being defined as logarithmic integral (though mathematica says only the second is)
in two ways:
∫x/log(x) dx
and
∫1/log(x) dx
I am aware that the second is the actual definition of li(x) but the top is used extremely frequently and upon trying out the top it matches pi(x) very closely so I'm not sure which is correct or if both are in the running for being defined as logarithmic integral (though mathematica says only the second is)