- #1
gnome
- 1,041
- 1
Given that XOR is defined by [itex]((X \wedge \neg Y) \vee (\neg X \wedge Y))[/itex], in order to prove that XOR is commutative is it sufficient to prove that
[itex]((X \wedge \neg Y) \vee (\neg X \wedge Y)) \supset ((Y \wedge \neg X) \vee (\neg Y \wedge X))[/itex]
is a tautology?
[itex]((X \wedge \neg Y) \vee (\neg X \wedge Y)) \supset ((Y \wedge \neg X) \vee (\neg Y \wedge X))[/itex]
is a tautology?