Looking for the limit if it exists

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series \(\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{2}{n^2-1}\). Participants explore various aspects of the series and its properties, including potential convergence and the application of different mathematical techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster expresses difficulty in determining the limit of the series and mentions attempts to identify a pattern in the terms. Some participants suggest using known series identities and the integral test for convergence. Others discuss partial fraction decomposition and its implications for the series.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different methods to analyze the series. Some participants have provided insights and alternative approaches, while others have raised questions about the accuracy of the interpretations and calculations presented. The discussion reflects a mix of attempts to clarify the series and its convergence without reaching a definitive conclusion.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the terms of the series and the correct application of techniques, as well as a note about a potential error in the original problem statement. Participants are actively questioning assumptions and clarifying details throughout the discussion.

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Homework Statement


[tex]\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{2}{n^2-1}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I don't know what it is about this, maybe just because its late, but I can't figure this out. Can someone please help. Just looking for the limit if it exists. I have tried to figure it out; just not sure what to do. I wrote down the the terms of the sequence and the sum, but I can't see a pattern.
 
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Note that: [tex]\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^2}= \frac{ \pi ^2}{6}[/tex]
 


Note the identity [tex]\cot x = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x+n \pi} = \frac{1}{x} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2x}{x^2 - n^2 \pi^2}[/tex], which can be proved by differentiating ln(sin(x)) using the infinite product form of sin(x).

Then, using coth(x) = i cot(ix) we get [tex]\coth x = \frac{1}{x} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2x}{x^2 + n^2 \pi^2}[/tex], which may be useful for your problem.
 
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Oops.. you can use the integral test if you just want to check its convergence.
 
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Thanks I figured this out today though, and just for completeness I will post the way I solved it.

If you use partial fraction decomposition to split of the initial fraction it becomes a telescoping series.

[tex]\frac{2}{n^2-1} = \frac{2}{(n+1)(n-1)}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{2}{(n+1)(n-1)} = \frac{A}{n+1} + \frac{B}{n-1}[/tex]

[tex]2 = A(n-1) + B(n+1)[/tex]

Solve that for A and B and you get A = -1, B=1.

So the original sum becomes:

[tex]\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n-1} - \frac{1}{n+1}[/tex]

if you write plug in some terms and write out the series you will get:

[tex]S_{n} = 1 + \frac{1}{2} -\frac{1}{n} -\frac{1}{n+1}[/tex]


[tex]\lim_{x -> \infty} S_{n} = 1 + \frac{1}{2} = 3/2[/tex]
 


Sheneron said:
Thanks I figured this out today though, and just for

if you write plug in some terms and write out the series you will get:

[tex]S_{n} = 1 + \frac{1}{2} -\frac{1}{n} -\frac{1}{n+1}[/tex]


[tex]\lim_{x -> \infty} S_{n} = 1 + \frac{1}{2} = 3/2[/tex]
Really?

I thought of something like:

Sn= 1-1/2+1/2-1/3 +1/3-1/4 +1/4-1/5+...=1

\\edit: your sum in the first post is different than in the fifth!
 


Except that's not the telescoping sum that he found. So you would get

1 - 1/3 + 1/2 - 1/4 + 1/3 - 1/5 + 1/4 - 1/6

Confusion abounds however, is the series in the original post not the one you were trying to sum?
 


Office_Shredder said:
Except that's not the telescoping sum that he found. So you would get

1 - 1/3 + 1/2 - 1/4 + 1/3 - 1/5 + 1/4 - 1/6
Yes, you're right I didn't read well enough!
 


Oh yeah sorry, in the very first post it should be a minus sign. Boy I guess that really makes a big difference.
 

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