- #1
Trifis
- 167
- 1
Hi guys,
this is my first post/thread, so I'd like to start with an easy one
I've searched the web and I wasn't able to find a satisfying proof of the fact that Lorentz contraction is NOT applied to the dimensions, that are not parallel to the direction of motion (e.g. perpendicularly). It's a bit annoying, because in most of the textbooks it is stated that this proof would be easy. Nevertheless it's NEVER provided!
I don't need another first postulate reductio ad absurdum but rather a mathematically consistent counter-argument (if one exists...).
Thanks a lot!
this is my first post/thread, so I'd like to start with an easy one
I've searched the web and I wasn't able to find a satisfying proof of the fact that Lorentz contraction is NOT applied to the dimensions, that are not parallel to the direction of motion (e.g. perpendicularly). It's a bit annoying, because in most of the textbooks it is stated that this proof would be easy. Nevertheless it's NEVER provided!
I don't need another first postulate reductio ad absurdum but rather a mathematically consistent counter-argument (if one exists...).
Thanks a lot!