- #1
QuasarBoy543298
- 32
- 2
hi, I'm currently taking a classical field theory class (electromagnetism in the language of tensors and actions and etc) and we have just encountered the gauge symmetry, that is for the 4 vector potential we can add a gradient of some smooth function and get the same physics (if we take Aμ → Aμ + ∂μf the actions stays the same, except some irrelevant constant).
now after that long preview, my question is - how can we conclude from that freedom that we can find a solution for the field A, with any boundary conditions, that satisfies the Lorentz gauge ( ∂μAμ = 0)?
now after that long preview, my question is - how can we conclude from that freedom that we can find a solution for the field A, with any boundary conditions, that satisfies the Lorentz gauge ( ∂μAμ = 0)?