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Lorentz transformation

  1. Oct 18, 2012 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

    Given that the derivative θμ transforms as a covariant vector ,show that θμ transforms as a contravariant vector.

    2. Relevant equations

    Please look the attachement

    3. The attempt at a solution
    Does anyone know how i should go to prove it ?Is it just a trivial substitution ?
     

    Attached Files:

  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 20, 2012 #2

    gabbagabbahey

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    Gold Member

    What are θμ & θμ supposed to mean exactly? Uf the problem is just to show that [itex]\frac{\partial}{\partial x_\mu}[/itex] transforms as a contravariant vector, just try an analogous proof to the covariant case in your image. If you get stuck, show your work.
     
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