Lorenz transformations for two parallel inertial systems

Tomer
Messages
198
Reaction score
0
Thanks for reading!

Homework Statement


I have been given a proof for the lorentz transformations (which I only partly understand) that relied on the two relativity postulates (equivalence of inertial systems and the speed of light being constant) for the case of two standard inertial systems: the system S' moved with velocity v along the x axis, and the systems are parallel.
Now I've been asked to generalize the transformation for the case the the systems are parallel, but the velocity isn't necessarily in the x axis. (a general v vector).
I need to show, that in this case, this equation holds:

1. \vec{r'} = \vec{r} + (\frac{\vec{v}\cdot\vec{r}}{v^{2}}(\beta - 1) - \betat)\vec{v}

2. t' = \beta(t - (\frac{\vec{v}\cdot\vec{r}}{v^{2}}))

Homework Equations



The development of the transformation for the simpler case (where v = (v,0,0) ) arrives to the point where it shows that the size x2 + y2 + z2 - c2t2 is invariant. It doesn't to that point use the assumption that the systems are parallel.
It is then sugested that from the fact that the space is isotropic y = y' and z = z'.
This is however no longer the case. So that's where, I guess, I need to work with new tools.

The Attempt at a Solution



By using \vec{r}2 = x2 + y2 + z2 I've tried to make an analogical development, treating |\vec{r}| as x was. I just don't seem to derive the equation, and I don't know how to use the fact that the systems are parallel.

I'm pretty rusty with algebra, I must say, haven't touched it for almost 2 years.

I'd appreciate any help!

Tomer.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Rather than trying to derive the general transformation from scratch, I would try expressing the transformation as a rotation to align the velocity with the +x axis, followed by a boost in the +x direction, followed by a rotation back to the original axes.
 
vela said:
Rather than trying to derive the general transformation from scratch, I would try expressing the transformation as a rotation to align the velocity with the +x axis, followed by a boost in the +x direction, followed by a rotation back to the original axes.

Thanks for the answer.

When you say "expressing the transformation", do you mean the expression I've written above? Or the transformation for the standard systems?

I am really rusty :-)
 
The one you're trying to derive now. The idea is that you know how to calculate r' and t' when the velocity v lines up with the x-axis, so you use a spatial rotation to bring the original system into that case, do the boost, and then rotate back to the original axes because you want the answer in terms of those axes. That said, I haven't actually worked the problem out, so there might be a simpler way to solve it. I'm just saying this is what I'd try first.
 
Actually, now that I've looked at the problem a bit more, it's probably easier to resolve \vec{r} into a component parallel to the velocity and one perpendicular to the velocity:\vec{r} = \vec{r}_\parallel + \vec{r}_\perpThe boost will mix t and r_\parallel but will leave \vec{r}_\perp unchanged, so you'll have
\begin{align*}
\vec{r_\perp} &\to \vec{r}_\perp \\
\vec{r_\parallel} &\to \vec{r'}_\parallel \\
t &\to t'
\end{align*}
and \vec{r}' = \vec{r}_\perp + \vec{r}'_\parallel.

By the way, are you sure those equations you're trying to derive are correct? You should have factors of \gamma in there somewhere.
 
Last edited:
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top