A Madam Wu's Experiment: Exploring Electron Behaviour in a Magnetic Field

LagrangeEuler
Messages
711
Reaction score
22
Why in Madam Wu experiment more electrons are not in direction of magnetic field? See Fig. Why there is not four electrons in the direction of magnetic field and two in oposite direction?
 

Attachments

  • Wu.png
    Wu.png
    25.7 KB · Views: 1,453
Physics news on Phys.org
Which figure do you mean? And where does the image come from?

They might have gotten the spin wrong in the second picture. Not sure what that is supposed to be.
 
I attached the Fig. Yes but if there is more electrons in the direction of field it will be also parity violation. My question is why there is more electrons in the oposite direction?
 
LagrangeEuler said:
I attached the Fig.
Well, the image has 4 figures in it.
LagrangeEuler said:
Yes but if there is more electrons in the direction of field it will be also parity violation.
More spins point in the direction of the magnetic field, so in terms of statistics, both things are the same. For individual atoms, only the spin matters.
 
See Fig a)
 

Thread 'Toponium Discovered'

Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
View full post »

Thread 'Dirac-Delta from Normalization of Continuous Eigenfunctions'

I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...
View full post »

Similar threads

A Madame Wu Experiment: Doubts & Reasoning
Replies
4
Views
2K
I MagLIF Magnetic Field Hypothesis
Replies
2
Views
2K
B Quantum teleportation of usable information
Replies
19
Views
2K
I Charge movement relative to magnetic field frame dependence/invariance
Replies
5
Views
851
I Proton in a magnetic field, numerical simulation
Replies
42
Views
5K
I Hall effect -- is it always applicable?
Replies
7
Views
2K
Plasma in a Vacuum Reacting to Magnetic Field
Replies
12
Views
2K
Why do paired electrons have no magnetic field lines?
Replies
5
Views
2K
I Muons magnetic field time dilation
Replies
12
Views
2K
I Particle field strength and sensitivity
Replies
0
Views
697

Hot Threads

Recent Insights

Back
Top