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Magnetic Susceptibility and Magnetization of Water

  1. Nov 10, 2014 #1
    This thread coincides with a previous thread I posted on reddit:

    http://www.reddit.com/r/chemistry/comments/2g69vt/magnetohydrodynamics_internal_energy_and_system/

    I'm trying to solve the following equation: U=TS-PV+HM. The problem is I'm having difficulty solving H delta M. I was told H is the magnetic susceptibility and Wiki suggests that M equals N/V(m):

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magnetization#Definition

    "Here, M represents magnetization; m is the vector that defines the magnetic moment; V represents volume; and N is the number of magnetic moments in the sample. The quantity N/V is usually written as n, the number density of magnetic moments. The M-field is measured in amperes per meter (A/m) in SI units"

    But how would this equation work for 1 ml of water in a 0.5 T magnetic field?

    I'm guessing that for 1 ml of water, this means the number of water molecules x the dipole moment of water divided by 1 ml. 1 ml of water has 3.344 x 1022 molecules with a dipole moment of 1.85 D per molecule. I'm totally confused and in desperate need of assistance. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 15, 2014 #2
    Thanks for the post! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
     
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