- #1
Padma
- 1
- 0
I am sorry to be bothering you - I am a high school student and I need help with something I don't understand. It is understandable if we think of why magnetic fields form closed loops if we think of the North and the South Poles not being separate from each other. This has been given as a proof for the nonexsistence of monopoles but for things like the bar magnet where the 2 poles are separated by some distance why should they still form closed loops? I would be really gald if you could answer my question.