noospace Messages 69 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Feb 19, 2008 #1 Does the relation [itex][f(\hat{A}),\hat{B}] = df(\hat{A})/d\hat{A}[/itex] follow when A commutes with [A,B]? or is this only valid when [A,B]=1?
Does the relation [itex][f(\hat{A}),\hat{B}] = df(\hat{A})/d\hat{A}[/itex] follow when A commutes with [A,B]? or is this only valid when [A,B]=1?
StatusX Homework Helper Messages 2,570 Reaction score 2 Feb 19, 2008 #2 If A commutes with [A,B] then: [tex][f(A),B] = [A,B] f'(A)[/tex] You should try to derive this formula. Use a taylor expansion of f(A), ie: [tex]f(A) = f(0) + f'(0) A + \frac{1}{2} f''(0) A^2 + ...[/tex]
If A commutes with [A,B] then: [tex][f(A),B] = [A,B] f'(A)[/tex] You should try to derive this formula. Use a taylor expansion of f(A), ie: [tex]f(A) = f(0) + f'(0) A + \frac{1}{2} f''(0) A^2 + ...[/tex]