Maximum position expectation value for 1D harmonic oscillator

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AwesomeTrains
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Hey, I'm stuck halfway through the solution it seems. I could use some tips on how to continue.

1. Homework Statement

I have to determine a linear combination of the states [itex]|0\rangle, |1\rangle[/itex], of a one dimensional harmonic oscillator, so that the expectation value [itex]\langle x \rangle[/itex] is a maximum.

Homework Equations


[itex]x=\sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}}(a+a^\dagger)[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution


I set [itex]|\alpha \rangle\equiv c_1|1\rangle + c_2|0\rangle[/itex]
Then I calculate [itex]\langle \alpha | x | \alpha \rangle = \sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}} (c_1^*\langle1| + c_2^*\langle 0|)(a+a^\dagger)(c_1|1\rangle + c_2|0\rangle)=\sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}}[c_1^*(c_1+c_2)+c_2^*c_2] = \sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}}[1+c_1^*c_2][/itex]
I get the last equation because of the normalization condition:
[itex]c_1^*c_1+c_2^*c_2=1[/itex]
This is where I don't know how to continue. Is this even the right approach?
(I'm not allowed to use the wave functions.)

Anything is appreciated.

Kind regards
Alex
 
You should recheck your calculation of ##\langle \alpha \lvert x \rvert \alpha \rangle##. The ##c_i^*c_i## terms shouldn't be there.
 
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Thanks for the fast reply.
I've corrected my calculation, is this right?:
First I calculate [itex](a+a^\dagger)|\alpha\rangle[/itex]
[itex]a(c_1|1\rangle+c_2|0\rangle)=c_1|0\rangle+0c_2|0\rangle=c_1|0\rangle[/itex]
and
[itex]a^\dagger(c_1|1\rangle+c_2|0\rangle)=c_1\sqrt{2}|2\rangle+c_2|1\rangle[/itex]

Then because [itex]|\alpha\rangle^\dagger = c_1^*\langle1|+c_2^*\langle0|[/itex]
[itex]\langle\alpha|(a+a^\dagger)|\alpha\rangle=c_1^*\langle1|(c_1\sqrt{2}|2\rangle+c_2|1\rangle+c_1|0\rangle)+c_2^*\langle0|(c_1\sqrt{2}|2\rangle+c_2|1\rangle+c_1|0\rangle)= c_1^*c_2+c_2^*c_1[/itex]
Do I use the lagrange multiplier method here? Or how do I continue?
 
So It's like a function of 4 variables [itex]f(c_1,c_1^*, c_2,c_2^*)=c_1^*c_2+c_2^*c_1[/itex] which I have to maximize under the condition [itex]c_1^*c_1+c_2^*c_2=1[/itex]
Or is there an easier solution?
 
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Hello! I Have the same exercise in my homework. Using the Lagrange multiplier I get ##c_{1}=c_{2}=1/\sqrt{2}##. Is that right?
 
AwesomeTrains said:
So It's like a function of 4 variables [itex]f(c_1,c_1^*, c_2,c_2^*)=c_1^*c_2+c_2^*c_1[/itex] which I have to maximize under the condition [itex]c_1^*c_1+c_2^*c_2=1[/itex]
Or is there an easier solution?
Yes, it is.
Mikhail_MR said:
Hello! I Have the same exercise in my homework. Using the Lagrange multiplier I get ##c_{1}=c_{2}=1/\sqrt{2}##. Is that right?
Whether it's true or not, you can do some kind of examination. For example, you can write ##\langle \hat{x} \rangle \propto |c_1||c_2| \cos{(\phi_1-\phi_2)}## where the ##\phi##'s are the angle of each coefficients, since we want to maximize our expectation value, it's necessary that ##\phi_1=\phi_2##.
 
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Thanks for advise, blue_leaf77. I have made my calculation new.
I get 4 different sets of values.
##c_{1}=c_{2} = i/\sqrt{2}##
##c_{1}=c_{2} = -i/\sqrt{2}##
##c_{1}=i/\sqrt{2}; c_{2} = -i/\sqrt{2}##
##c_{1}=-i/\sqrt{2}; c_{2} = i/\sqrt{2}##

Using your advise how to examine solutions only the first and the second solutions are of interest. I can get this result on another way just inserting values in ##f## and finding a maximum. My question is: how i decide which set is right (the first or the second)?
 
Mikhail_MR said:
Thanks for advise, blue_leaf77. I have made my calculation new.
I get 4 different sets of values.
##c_{1}=c_{2} = i/\sqrt{2}##
##c_{1}=c_{2} = -i/\sqrt{2}##
##c_{1}=i/\sqrt{2}; c_{2} = -i/\sqrt{2}##
##c_{1}=-i/\sqrt{2}; c_{2} = i/\sqrt{2}##
Well as long as ##\phi_1 = \phi_2## is satisfied, any ##\phi_1## is possible.
Mikhail_MR said:
how i decide which set is right (the first or the second)?
In the original question posted by the OP, he is asked to calculate the maximum of ##\langle \hat{x} \rangle##. In your case, I don't know what you are asked to do in your own homework.
 
I have to calculate the maximum of ##\langle \hat{x} \rangle## too
 
blue_leaf77 said:
Well as long as ##\phi_1 = \phi_2## is satisfied, any ##\phi_1## is possible.
You have this freedom.
 
Mikhail_MR said:
Thanks for advise, blue_leaf77. I have made my calculation new.
I get 4 different sets of values.
##c_{1}=c_{2} = i/\sqrt{2}##
##c_{1}=c_{2} = -i/\sqrt{2}##

Using your advise how to examine solutions only the first and the second solutions are of interest. I can get this result on another way just inserting values in ##f## and finding a maximum. My question is: how i decide which set is right (the first or the second)?
Your first solution corresponds to the state
$$\lvert \alpha_1 \rangle = i\left(\frac {1}{\sqrt{2}} \lvert 0 \rangle + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \lvert 1 \rangle\right) = e^{i\frac {\pi}{2}}\left(\frac {1}{\sqrt{2}} \lvert 0 \rangle + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \lvert 1 \rangle\right),$$ and your second solution to
$$\lvert \alpha_2 \rangle = -i\left(\frac {1}{\sqrt{2}} \lvert 0 \rangle + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \lvert 1 \rangle\right) = e^{-i\frac {\pi}{2}}\left(\frac {1}{\sqrt{2}} \lvert 0 \rangle + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \lvert 1 \rangle\right).$$ The two states differ only by an overall phase factor, so…
 
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