- #1

Karliski

- 10

- 0

Why does

[tex]0 = \epsilon^{\alpha \beta \gamma \delta} \frac{\partial F_{\alpha \beta}}{\partial x^\gamma}

[/tex]

reduce to

[tex]

0 = {\partial F_{\alpha\beta}\over\partial x^\gamma} + {\partial F_{\beta\gamma}\over\partial x^\alpha} + {\partial F_{\gamma\alpha}\over\partial x^\beta}

[/tex]

?