Maxwell Equations without Faraday's Law

AI Thread Summary
Removing Faraday's Law from Maxwell's equations fundamentally alters electromagnetic theory, as it cannot be reconstituted by the other laws, which are independent. Without Faraday's Law, phenomena like motors and generators would cease to function, and light would not propagate as there would be no wave solutions to Maxwell's equations. The discussion highlights that light and motors differ primarily due to their operational environments, with light being a vacuum solution. Advanced theories of electromagnetism tend to bind these laws more closely, often integrating Faraday's Law with Gauss's Law for magnetism into a single equation. Overall, the interdependence of these laws is crucial for the functioning of electromagnetic systems.
kiki_danc
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Maxwell equations are composed of:

Gauss's Law
Gauss's Law for Magnetism
Faraday's Law
Ampere's law with Maxwell addition

If you take out Faraday's Law.. can other laws re constitute it? Or are they independent?

I want to know how the world would behave if there were no Faraday's Law. Note Faraday's Law is mostly related to generators, transformers, motors. So if this law didn't exist. Light would still behave the same and others?
 
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kiki_danc said:
If you take out Faraday's Law.. can other laws re constitute it? Or are they independent?
They are independent. If you remove Faraday’s law you cannot reconstitute it.

kiki_danc said:
Light would still behave the same and others?
No, light would not work either. There would not be a wave solution of Maxwell’s equations
 
Dale said:
They are independent. If you remove Faraday’s law you cannot reconstitute it.

No, light would not work either. There would not be a wave solution of Maxwell’s equations

Can one say motors and light differ due to the frequency of the magnetic and electric field?

So perhaps if only high frequency magnetic and electric field could be made to exist (for sake of discussion).. then only light can exist and all motors, generators would cease to function?
 
kiki_danc said:
Can one say motors and light differ due to the frequency of the magnetic and electric field?
I would say that the more important difference is that light is a vacuum solution and motors are not vacuum. You can have “light” at arbitrarily low frequencies.
 
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Dale said:
I would say that the more important difference is that light is a vacuum solution and motors are not vacuum. You can have “light” at arbitrarily low frequencies.

What kind of light is produced at arbitrarily low frequencies? examples?
 
fresh_42 said:

In unified theories or quantum electrodynamics.. is it possible to decouple high frequency em (light) from low frequency em (motors) by breaking or unbreaking symmetries? Meaning you let only high frequency em work and suppress all low frequency em from the laws of nature such that in another multiverse, motors can't exist but light can.. Or they are still binded together in even in any final theory?
 
kiki_danc said:
Or they are still binded together in even in any final theory?
They become more closely bound in more advanced theories, not less. In most of them you cannot even write Faraday’s law separately.
 
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Dale said:
They become more closely bound in more advanced theories, not less. In most of them you cannot even write Faraday’s law separately.

Why, in our current incomplete theories.. can you write Faraday's law separately? How?
 
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I don’t understand that question
 
  • #11
Dale said:
I don’t understand that question

You stated that "In most of them you cannot even write Faraday’s law separately.". So there is possibility that in our current theory we can write Faraday's law separately? how?
 
  • #12
kiki_danc said:
So there is possibility that in our current theory we can write Faraday's law separately? how?
Not just a possibility, a certainty:
##\nabla \times E = -\frac{\partial}{\partial t} B##
 
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  • #13
Dale said:
Not just a possibility, a certainty:
##\nabla \times E = -\frac{\partial}{\partial t} B##

Any illustration or youtube video what they mean and how to write Faraday's law separately? How come in advanced theories... they become more closely bound?
 
  • #14
kiki_danc said:
Any illustration or youtube video what they mean and how to write Faraday's law separately?
I just showed you how in post 12.

kiki_danc said:
How come in advanced theories... they become more closely bound?
Why did you randomly insert “...” in your question? It is very distracting and makes no sense. It looks like you are trying to add a pause, but it makes no sense to pause there.

They are more closely bound in the advanced theories because the advanced theories tend to use mathematical constructs where Faraday’s law is either a mathematical identity or it is combined with Gauss’ law for magnetism into a single equation.
 
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