MisterX
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Homework Statement
Condensed/simplified problem statement
\vec{E} = f_{y}(x-ct)\hat{y} + f_{z}(x-ct)\hat{z} \\<br /> \vec{B} = g_{y}(x-ct)\hat{y} + g_{z}(x-ct)\hat{z} \\
All the f and g functions go to zero as their parameters go to ±∞.
Show that gy = fz and gz = -fy
Homework Equations
\nabla \cdot \vec{E} = 0 \\<br /> \nabla \cdot \vec{B} = 0
\nabla \times \vec{E} = -\frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t}
\nabla \times \vec{B} = \frac{1}{c^{2}}\frac{\partial \vec{E}}{\partial t}<br />
The Attempt at a Solution
\nabla \times \vec{E} = -\frac{\partial f_{z}(x-ct)}{\partial x}\hat{y} + \frac{\partial f_{y}(x-ct)}{\partial x}\hat{z} = -\frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t} = \\-(g^{'}_{y}(x-ct)(-c)\hat{y} + g^{'}_{z}(x-ct)(-c)\hat{z}) = c(g^{'}_{y}(x-ct)\hat{y} + g^{'}_{z}(x-ct)\hat{z})
The -c factors come from the chain rule when differentiating B with respect to t. So then I have the following.
-\frac{\partial f_{z}(x-ct)}{\partial x} = -f^{'}_{z}(x-ct) = cg^{'}_{y}(x-ct) \\<br /> \frac{\partial f_{y}(x-ct)}{\partial x} = f^{'}_{y}(x-ct) = cg^{'}_{z}(x-ct)
The problem is to relate the functions directly and not by their derivatives. We are given that the functions all go to zero as the parameter goes to +/- infinity. So maybe it would be okay to just integrate without concern for a constant added on. But supposedly the c factor isn't there. The answer is supposed to haveg_{y} = -f_{z}. How do I get there?
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