Measuring Angular Momentum for Free Particles: L-square =l(l+1)?

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sanjibghosh
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In case of 3d free particle Schrödinger equation solution, the angular momentum eigenvalue L-square =l(l+1) and a free particle has a wavefunction as the superposition of all 'l'(angular momentum) states.Now the difficulty is that when I will measure the L-square, is it true that I will endup with a result L-squrae=l(l+1) even for a free particle? Can anybody measure the anguler momentum directly?
 
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ok...but without potential how can I expect the angular momentum quantization? Is it experimentally verified that the angular momentum of a free particle is quantized?
 
you write the plane wave as series expansion of angular momenta.

in order to measure the angular momentum of a particle you need something to make it interact with, a potential ..

but yes scattering of particles against potentials include terms for all angular momentum components of the incoming particle.
 
So when I will measure the angular momentum, I can get all the L-square with different probability..Is it true?
 
So, how can I know whether this is Boson or Fermion?
 
but Boson or Fermion depends on it's angular momentum.
 
no, they depend on their INTRINSIC angular momentum; The Spin.

What you and me have discussed now is a particles orbital angular momentum.
 
OK thanks and sorry for the stupidity
 
But for the same reason, why is not energy quantized?
 
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what is scattering theory?
 
It is not so clear to me but I only know that this is the quantum mechanical description of scattering of some incoming particles by some scatterer (potential).
 
and I only know the partial wave method.
 
energy is conserved in inelastic scattering, i don't know where your "why is not energy quantized?" comes from - what makes you ask such question??

use "edit" feature.
 
ok thanks..
actually my mother tongue is Bengali that's why I have some problem in English.