Mechanics Lab | A Simple Pendulum & a Small Magnet Underneath

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on integrating magnetic force into the period of a simple pendulum, using provided measurements of period time and distances. Participants suggest using the formula T=2π√(l/(g+Fm)) to incorporate the magnetic force, emphasizing that the mass of the bob and the length of the pendulum are essential for calculations. Clarification is sought on how to relate the magnetic force to the distance from the magnet, with suggestions to derive a linear relationship for plotting. The need to treat gravitational acceleration and magnetic force as distinct entities is highlighted, ensuring accurate calculations. The conversation concludes with an acknowledgment of the guidance provided.
Curious_Student
Messages
8
Reaction score
0
Homework Statement
A pendulum made of an iron bob which is hanged at the bottom tip of a rod (rods' mass can be neglected) where connected to an angular ratio sensor, mesuring with a MultiLab program (just the period of time according to its' harmonic motion, taking avg. of 10 swings-cycles pick-to-pick, devided by 10). Underneath the pendulums' bob there is a small magnet which applies a force in addition to the gravity downwards and impacts the period of time when swinging.
I placed the small magnet underneath on an hydraulic stand for adjusting the distance between the magnet and bob (intervals of 1 mm because the magnet is weak), so that the length of the pendulum is constant, unchanged.

The Quest: is to find pendulums' Period Time dependence on distance between bob and the magnet, then find magnets' force as function of the distance, from measured periiod times.
Relevant Equations
Considering it as a simple mathematical pendulum:

T= 2pi*root(l/g)
linear: T^2 = 4pi^2/g*l


This is all the info. I got, no such magnetic formulas.
I think the way they direct is to treat the Magnetic Force as a Variable (x) and adding it and the distance, somehow.. to the formula above,
Because as we did before (finding period time as function of length T^2(l)), I was told to do in a similar way, building a linear graph and finding the value from the relation.

But im stuck..
How can I add the magnets' force and its' distance into this formula?
Anything else conastant (length,pi,g..)

If anybody can to just throw me a clue.. I am really confused.
I have measurements of period time and distances that's all:
T (sec)​
D (m)​
0.9​
0.008​
0.91​
0.009​
0.97​
0.01​
0.98​
0.011​
1.06​
0.012​

I thought about adding the magnetic force like: T=2π*√l/(g+x) but have no clue how to integrate the distance there,
I don't know even how to start..

Appreciate any kind of help,
Thanks in advance!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
gneill said:
Take a look at the derivation of the period of a simple pendulum. For example here:

http://dev.physicslab.org/Document.aspx?doctype=3&filename=OscillatoryMotion_PendulumSHM.xml

See if you can't find a way to work the magnetic force into that. I think you can assume that over the range where the magnetic force is effective it is parallel to the gravitational force.
I see, but I am sorry, still don't get it .. how to find the magnetic force and its' vertical distance relation as a function of the period time? all i have is the period time and distance correlation measurements..
Can you be more specific please? and yes I would take the magnet force as parallel
to g force only.
 
You'll need the mass of the bob, or at lest the period of the pendulum when there's no magnet operating; the mass of the bob can be extracted from that information. You'll also need the length of the pendulum.

If you look at the page I referenced, the restoring force is give by ##m g \sin(\theta)##. If you add a value for the magnetic force, ##F_m## then that restoring force becomes: ##\left(m g + F_m \right) \sin(\theta)## . Complete the derivation in the same fashion they did. Solve for ##F_m##.
 
I do have the mass of the bob, but it cancles out:
1578769069534.png
so why do i need it? and how to deal the length if its constant?
If I understand you right, you suggest to add Fm to dominator as: T= 2π√[l/(g+Fm)] like I've mentioned and to rescue Fm right? but where should the distance from the magnet be placed into consideration.
I should find some linear relation, to form a graph for T(magnet distance) and get the Fm from there somehow. Still don't get it.. I'm sorry.
 
g is an acceleration while Fm is a force. You cannot sum them in that fashion.

In the derivation where they introduce the restoring force:

##M g \sin(\theta) = k_s L \theta##

you introduce the additional magnetic force:

##\left( M g + F_m \right) \sin(\theta) = k_s L \theta##

then carry on. The final expression for the period will involve L, M, Fm, and g.

Solve it for Fm then you can plot Fm versus D.
 
gneill said:
g is an acceleration while Fm is a force. You cannot sum them in that fashion.

In the derivation where they introduce the restoring force:

##M g \sin(\theta) = k_s L \theta##

you introduce the additional magnetic force:

##\left( M g + F_m \right) \sin(\theta) = k_s L \theta##

then carry on. The final expression for the period will involve L, M, Fm, and g.

Solve it for Fm then you can plot Fm versus D.
ok, thank you
 
Back
Top