Minimizing Friction for a Ball in a Rough Bowl: Accelerations and Velocity

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The discussion revolves around analyzing the motion of a ball in a rough bowl, focusing on its tangential and radial accelerations, velocity, and the necessary friction coefficient to prevent slipping. Key equations derived include the radial acceleration formula, which relates to the ball's velocity, and the condition for minimum friction, expressed as μ = cos(θ). Participants explore the implications of conservation of energy and the transition from sliding to rolling motion, emphasizing the role of friction and normal force. The conversation highlights the complexity of the problem, particularly in determining the conditions for pure rolling and the associated accelerations. Overall, the thread illustrates the intricate dynamics of a ball's motion in a non-ideal environment.
  • #51
Can you explain why fs isn't Nμs? what's the explanation for ##f_s=\frac{k}{1+k}mg\cos(θ)##, how did you derive it?
Friction, static or kinetic, to my opinion, is the normal force times the coefficient: Nμ, and if μsk then fs=fk always.

I don't understand this line: ##mR\ddot \theta=mg\sin(\theta)-F_f##
The left side isn't the torque, so it isn't the formula ##T=I_c\alpha##
And on the right side we subtract 2 rectangular forces? mgsin(θ) is a radial force and Ff is tangential
 
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  • #52
Karol said:
Can you explain why fs isn't Nμs? what's the explanation for ##f_s=\frac{k}{1+k}mg\cos(θ)##, how did you derive it?
Friction, static or kinetic, to my opinion, is the normal force times the coefficient: Nμ, and if μsk then fs=fk always.
No. The static force of friction is the force that opposes other forces so as the body in question does not slide. The force of static friction can not exceed μsN, but can be anything between zero and μsN, in contrast with the kinetic friction, which is definitely FkkN.
 
  • #53
Karol said:
The left side isn't the torque
Quite so - it is the linear acceleration parallel to the slope. Remember, theta here is for the position of the ball within the bowl, and my R is your R-r.
 
  • #54
Karol said:
I don't understand this line: ##mR\ddot \theta=mg\sin(\theta)-F_f##
There's a "misprint" on the right side where sin should be cos.
But haruspex's next line ##R\ddot \theta=g\cos(\theta)-\mu R\dot\theta^2-\mu g\sin(\theta)## is correct.
 
  • #55
TSny said:
There's a "misprint" on the right side where sin should be cos.
But haruspex's next line ##R\ddot \theta=g\cos(\theta)-\mu R\dot\theta^2-\mu g\sin(\theta)## is correct.
Thanks - transcription error.
 
  • #56
And at ##\theta## we have:
$$-mgsin\theta+N=m\frac{v^2}{R-r}$$
$$-F_r+mgcos\theta=m\gamma.(R-r)$$
And ##\mu_{min}## :
$$F_r≤\mu N$$
 
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  • #57
How to solve ##yy'+ky^2=A\cos(x)-B\sin(x)##? where to find sources on the internet or elsewhere
 
  • #58
Karol said:
How to solve ##yy'+ky^2=A\cos(x)-B\sin(x)##? where to find sources on the internet or elsewhere
Let ##u = y^2##.
 
  • #59
TSny said:
I wonder if the problem wants you to assume (unrealistically) that the ball rolls without slipping from the beginning. Then, for an arbitrary value of θ, find the minimum coefficient of static friction that will prevent slipping at that θ. You can then see how ##\mu^{\rm min}_s## diverges as θ → 0.
According to which equation do you find that ##\mu^{\rm min}_s## diverges, still you don't have the equation for μ
Where do i find explanation about the Latex operator \rm that you used in ##\mu^{\rm min}_s##? i understand it makes text look nice but i didn't find material about it
 
  • #60
Karol said:
According to which equation do you find that ##\mu^{\rm min}_s## diverges
If you make the false assumption that the ball rolls without slipping from the start, then you can use conservation of energy to find ##v## as a function of ##\theta##, as in your post # 9.

Using this expression for ##v(\theta)## in your first equation in post #38, you can find the normal force as a function of ##\theta##, ##N(\theta)##.

From ##\sum F_t = ma_t## , ##\sum \tau_c = I_c \alpha##, and ##a_t = r\alpha##, you can find the friction force as a function of ##\theta##, ##f(\theta)##.

For an arbitrary ##\theta## you can use ##f(\theta)## and ##N(\theta)## to find the minimum value of the coefficient of friction for that value of ##\theta##, ##\mu_s^{\rm min}(\theta)##. You get an expression ##\mu_s^{\rm min}(\theta)## that diverges as ##\theta \rightarrow 0##.

I was thinking that this might be what they wanted you to do. It shows how ##\mu_s^{\rm min}(\theta)## would need to increase as ##\theta## decreases. And it shows that ##\mu_s^{\rm min}(\theta)## would need to go to infinity to prevent slipping at the beginning. Since that's impossible, it just shows (as expected) that you can't have rolling without slipping from the start.
Where do i find explanation about the Latex operator \rm that you used in ##\mu^{\rm min}_s##? i understand it makes text look nice but i didn't find material about it
I can't remember where I first saw \rm for roman text. What little Latex I know I have learned from posting here at PF. Here is a link that lists the command \rm
https://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/LaTeX/Command_Glossary
 
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  • #61
Karol said:
According to which equation do you find that ##\mu^{\rm min}_s## diverges, still you don't have the equation for μ ...

If you assume that the ball is doing pure rolling (which it is not) then we can set up the coordinate system like this:
zapost.jpg

Since the ball is rolling without skidding, no energy is lost hence:
0=\frac{1}{2}mv^2+\frac{1}{2}I_{cm}\dot{\varphi}^2-mgh, it can easily be shown that h=sin(\theta)\cdot R,\; I_{cm}=\frac{2}{5}mr^2,\;v_{cm}=R\cdot \dot{\theta}=r\cdot\dot{\varphi} where \dot{\varphi} is angular velocity about center of mass (cm).
After a bit of algebraic manipulation we find this result which we will use in a bit. mR\dot{\theta}=\frac{10}{7}mg\cdot sin(\theta)
Okay, since we know that position vector \vec{r} has a constant magnitude \left | \vec{r} \;\right |=R=const. then, m\ddot{\vec{r}}=-mR\dot{\theta}^2\cdot\hat{r}+mR\ddot{\theta}\cdot\hat{\theta}.N-mg\cdot sin(\theta)=mR\dot{\theta}^2 \;(1),\;mg\cdot cos(\theta)-\mu N=mR\ddot{\theta}\;(2). After you solve for N in equation (1), place it into the second equation, take the time derivative of equation (1) and replace it with right hand side of equation (2) you will find the following result: \frac{2}{17tan(\theta)}=\mu
Here is your equation for \mu as you can see it, it is not a coefficient i.e. a "constant function" and it diverges for \theta=0.

Regarding the differential equations other fine members mentioned, here is a link for a quick guide:http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/DE/Bernoulli.aspx

Hope this helped, cheers!
 
  • #62
TSny said:
Let ##u=y^2##
$$yy'+\mu y^2=\frac gR(\cos(x)-\mu\sin(x))$$
$$u=y^2,~~y=\sqrt{u},~~u'=2yy'~~\rightarrow~~y'=\frac{u'}{2y}=\frac{u'}{2\sqrt{u}}$$
$$yy'+\mu y^2=\sqrt{u}=\frac{u'}{2\sqrt{u}}+ku$$
$$\rightarrow~~yy'+\mu y^2=\frac{1}{2}u'+ku$$
$$\frac{1}{2}u'+ku=\frac gR(\cos(x)-\mu\sin(x))$$
I have to solve this differential equation
 
  • #63
Karol said:
$$\frac{1}{2}u'+ku=\frac gR(\cos(x)-\mu\sin(x))$$
I have to solve this differential equation
Yes, if R is actually Rbowl - r.
 
  • #64
Karol said:
I have to solve this differential equation
Tip: just assume there are solutions which are linear combinations of cos(x) and sin(x). Plug that in and determine the coefficients.

Edit: I forgot to point out that this will only give you a particular solution. To this must be added the general solution of the homogeneous equation (setting RHS to zero). Thanks to TSny for adding that.
 
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  • #65
haruspex said:
Tip: just assume there are solutions which are linear combinations of cos(x) and sin(x). Plug that in and determine the coefficients.
$$yy'+\mu y^2=A\cos(x)-B\sin(x),~~yy'+\mu y^2=\frac gR(\cos(x)-\mu\sin(x))$$
$$\rightarrow~~\frac{1}{2}u'+\mu u=\frac gR(\cos(x)-\mu\sin(x))$$
I assume ##u=C\cdot \sin(x)+D\cdot \cos(x)~~\rightarrow~~u'=C\cdot \cos(x)-D\cdot\sin(x)##
$$\frac{1}{2}(C\cdot \cos (x)-D\cdot\sin (x))+\mu C\cdot\sin(x)+\mu \cdot\cos(x)=A\cos(x)-B\sin(X)$$
$$\left( \frac{C}{2}+\mu D \right)\cos(x)+\left( \mu C-\frac{D}{2} \right)\sin(x)=A\cos(x)-B\sin(X)$$
$$\rightarrow~\frac{C}{2}+\mu D = A,~~\mu C-\frac{D}{2}=-B$$
$$C=2A-2\mu D,~~D=\frac{4\mu A+2B}{4\mu^2+1}$$
$$u=y^2~~\rightarrow~~y=\sqrt{C\cdot\sin(x)+D\cdot\cos(x)}=...$$
But ##A=\frac{g}{R},~~B=\frac{\mu g}{R}##:
$$C=\frac{2(1-2\mu^2)g}{(4\mu^2+1)R},~~D=\frac{6\mu g}{(4\mu^2+1)R}$$
Where did the term ##e^{-2\mu_k\theta}## in the solution:
$$\dot\theta^2=\frac g{(R-r)(1+4\mu_k^2)}[6\mu_k(\cos(\theta)-e^{-2\mu_k\theta})+\sin(\theta)]$$
Come from?
 
  • #66
Your solution up(x) = C sinx + D cosx is a "particular" solution of the differential equation, but it is not the most general solution. (Note that this solution does not satisfy the initial condition that the ball starts from rest.)

Suppose you can find a solution U(x) to the differential equation (1/2)U'(x) + μU(x) = 0 where the right hand side has been set to zero.

Show that the function u(x) = up(x) + kU(x) satisfies the original equation (1/2)u' + μu = A cosx - B sinx for any value of the constant k.
 
  • #67
TSny said:
Suppose you can find a solution U(x) to the differential equation (1/2)U'(x) + μU(x) = 0
$$U(x)=\frac{1}{2}e^{-2\mu x},~~u(x)=u_p(x)+kU(x)=\frac{1}{2}u'+\mu u+C\cdot\sin(x)+D\cdot\cos(x)$$
Initial angular velocity ##\dot\theta=0##:
$$u(0)=D+k=0~~\rightarrow~~k=-D$$
From post #65:
$$C=\frac{2(1-2\mu^2)g}{(4\mu^2+1)R},~~D=\frac{6\mu g}{(4\mu^2+1)R}$$
$$\rightarrow~u(x)=u_p(x)+kU(x)=C\cdot\sin(x)+D\cdot\cos(x)-D\frac{1}{2}e^{-2\mu x}$$
$$u(x)=\frac{2g}{(4\mu^2+1)R}[(1-2\mu^2)\sin(x)+3\mu\cos(x)-\frac{3}{2}\mu e^{-2\mu x}]$$
 
  • #68
Karol said:
$$U(x)=\frac{1}{2}e^{-2\mu x}$$
OK, but you don't need to include the factor of 1/2 here.
$$u(x)=u_p(x)+kU(x)=\frac{1}{2}u'+\mu u+C\cdot\sin(x)+D\cdot\cos(x)$$
Couple of typos: The second "=" should not be there. The next to last "+" should be "=".
Initial angular velocity ##\dot\theta=0##:
$$u(0)=D+k=0~~\rightarrow~~k=-D$$
If you include the 1/2 factor in U(x), then you would not get k = -D.
$$u(x)=\frac{2g}{(4\mu^2+1)R}[(1-2\mu^2)\sin(x)+3\mu\cos(x)-\frac{3}{2}\mu e^{-2\mu x}]$$
The factor of 3/2 in the last term is not correct. This is due to your including the 1/2 factor in U(x). Note your expression does not satisfy u(0) = 0.

But, otherwise your work looks very good.
 
  • #69
$$u(x)=e^{-2\mu x},~~u'(x)=-2\mu e^{-2\mu x},~~\frac{1}{2}u'+\mu u=0$$
$$u(x)=u_p(x)+kU(x)=C\cdot\sin(x)+D\cdot\cos(x)+ke^{-2\mu x}$$
$$u(0)=D+k=0~~\rightarrow~~k=-D$$
$$C=\frac{2(1-2\mu^2)g}{(4\mu^2+1)R},~~D=\frac{6\mu g}{(4\mu^2+1)R}$$
$$\rightarrow~u(x)=u_p(x)+kU(x)=C\cdot\sin(x)+D\cdot\cos(x)-De^{-2\mu x}$$
$$u(x)=\frac{2g}{(4\mu^2+1)R}[(1-2\mu^2)\sin(x)+3\mu\cos(x)-3\mu e^{-2\mu x}]$$
 
  • #70
Karol said:
$$u(x)=\frac{2g}{(4\mu^2+1)R}[(1-2\mu^2)\sin(x)+3\mu\cos(x)-3\mu e^{-2\mu x}]$$
That looks right.
 
  • #71
$$u=y^2~~\rightarrow~~\dot\theta=\sqrt{u(x)=\frac{2g}{(4\mu^2+1)R}[(1-2\mu^2)\sin(x)+3\mu\cos(x)-3\mu e^{-2\mu x}]}$$
 
  • #72
Yes.
 
  • #73
TSny said:
Some typos here?
$$F_N=mR\dot\theta^2+mg\sin(\theta),~~T=F_N\mu r$$
$$T=I_c\alpha~~\rightarrow~~\alpha=\left( \frac{R\dot\theta^2+g\sin\theta}{kr^2} \right)\mu$$
TSny said:
You know ##\dot{\theta}(\theta)## and you know ##\alpha(\theta)## explicitly from your post #38 (after correcting the typo)
I have to insert ##u(x)=\dot\theta^2## from post #69 into the above and then use it in:
$$\omega(\theta) = \large \int \frac{\alpha(\theta)}{\dot{\theta}(\theta)} \small d\theta$$
 
  • #74
Karol said:
$$\alpha=\left( \frac{R\dot\theta^2+g\sin\theta}{kr^2} \right)\mu$$
I believe this is off by a factor of ##r##.

I have to insert ##u(x)=\dot\theta^2## from post #69 into the above and then use it in:
$$\omega(\theta) = \large \int \frac{\alpha(\theta)}{\dot{\theta}(\theta)} \small d\theta$$
Yes. As you can see, it is a very difficult integral to evaluate.
 
  • #75
TSny said:
I believe this is off by a factor of rrr.
$$T=I_c\alpha~~\rightarrow~~\alpha=\left( \frac{R\dot\theta^2+g\sin\theta}{kr} \right)\mu$$
 
  • #76
Looks good.
 
  • #77
VMP said:
After a bit of algebraic manipulation we find this result which we will use in a bit:
$$mR\dot{\theta}=\frac{10}{7}mg\cdot sin(\theta)$$
But i find:
$$mgh=\frac{1}{2}mv^2+\frac{1}{2}I_{cm}\dot{\varphi}^2=\frac{1}{2}mR^2\dot\theta^2+\frac{1}{2}\frac{2}{5}mr^2\frac{R^2}{r^2}\dot\theta^2$$
$$mgR\sin\theta=\frac{7}{10}R\dot\theta^2~~\rightarrow~~g\sin\theta=\frac{7}{10}R\dot\theta^2$$
 
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  • #78
Correction, just a minor mistake, it should be:
$$mR\dot{\theta}^2=\frac{10}{7}mg\cdot sin(\theta)$$
And i find, at the end
$$\mu=\frac{17}{5}\frac{1}{\tan(\theta)}$$
 
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  • #79
@VMP, shouldn't you measure the angle θ from the vertical x axis? maybe we should change x with y directions?
 
  • #80
@Karol
It doesn't really matter how you label the axes as long as you know what you're doing.
Thank you for correcting the mR\dot{\theta}^2 term,
I'm not sure I made a mistake with the second term you mentioned and my conclusion regarding the functional relation was wrong. Only problem with the \mu statement in post #61 is that it diverges for \theta=0. Either way, the result shows what was intended.

I gave the problem some thought and this is what I derived. Firstly, relabel the axes like this:
IMG_20160904_164723.jpg


If you review the initial problem, ball dissipates energy until it reaches some critical angle \theta_{0}
And after t\rightarrow \infty the ball will oscillate in such way that at critical angle both kinetic energy of CoM and rotational kinetic energy are equal to 0.

Now, let's start again.
I'm assuming that this critical angle is invariant to excess velocity and rotational energy because force of friction \vec{f}can be written as a function of \theta.
Suppose that you begin from the bottom of the cup with some initial velocity v_{cm}(t=0),
some angular speed (about the center of mass) \dot{\varphi}(t=0) and we want the ball to roll without slipping, then R\dot{\theta}=v_{cm}=r\dot{\varphi} as I've wrote before in the older post.

Our goal is to find how \mu is related to \theta, we can do this by writing out equations of motion and energy.

E=const.=\frac{1}{2}mv_{cm}^2+\frac{1}{2}I_{cm}\dot{\varphi}^2-mgR(1-cos(\theta))\; (1)
m\ddot{\vec{R}}=-mR\dot{\theta}^2\cdot\hat{r}+mR\ddot{\theta}\cdot\hat{\theta}=(mgcos(\theta)-N)\cdot\hat{r}+(f-mgsin(\theta))\cdot\hat{\theta}\;(2)

From equation (1) you should be able to derive that \ddot{\theta}=\frac{5g}{7R}sin(\theta).
From equation (2) \ddot{\theta}=\frac{g}{R(4\mu^2+1)}(3\mu cos(\theta)+(\mu^2-1)sin(\theta)).

...solving for \mu=\frac{3cos(\theta)-\sqrt{9cos^2(\theta)-\frac{624}{49}sin^2(\theta)}}{\frac{26}{7}sin(\theta)}
This is the minimum value of \mu for critical angle \theta_{0}.
Note the graph:
graf.jpg

Interesting thing to note is that maximum value of \theta_{0}\approx40^{\circ}.

Cheers!

P.S. I didn't bother checking the math, so don't mind if the result is off by a numerical constant.
 
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  • #81
@VMP, you wrote:
$$E=const.=\frac{1}{2}mv_{cm}^2+\frac{1}{2}I_{cm}\dot{\varphi}^2-mgR(1-cos(\theta))\; (1)$$
How did you get to:
VMP said:
From equation (1) you should be able to derive that: ##\ddot{\theta}=\frac{5g}{7R}sin(\theta)##
$$\frac{1}{2}mv_{cm}^2+\frac{1}{2}I_{cm}\dot{\varphi}^2=mgR(1-cos(\theta))\; (1)$$
$$\frac{1}{2}mR^2\dot\theta^2+\frac{1}{2}\frac{7}{5}mr^2\frac{R^2}{r^2}\dot\theta^2=mgR(1-cos(\theta))~~\rightarrow~~\frac{7}{5}R\dot\theta^2=g(1-\cos(\theta))$$
You start from the bottom of the bowl and the ball deaccelerates. why did you take as positive ##+mR\ddot{\theta}\cdot\hat{\theta}## and also f in:
$$m\ddot{\vec{R}}=-mR\dot{\theta}^2\cdot\hat{r}+mR\ddot{\theta}\cdot\hat{\theta}=(mgcos(\theta)-N)\cdot\hat{r}+(f-mgsin(\theta))\cdot\hat{\theta}\;(2)$$
As i understand, if the acceleration is in the direction of decreasing θ it should be negative, and here the ball tries to fall back. isn't the positive direction of ##\hat{\theta}## further from the x axis, towards y, in your sketch counterclockwise?
 
  • #82
Karol said:
@VMP
You start from the bottom of the bowl and the ball deaccelerates. why did you take as positive ##+mR\ddot{\theta}\cdot\hat{\theta}## and also f in:
Yea, I just realized i screwed up the differential equation solution, sorry. The energy equation should also contain the plus sign. I'll try to redeem myself when I get the time.

Cheers
 
  • #83
@VMP said:
$$E=const.=\frac{1}{2}mv_{cm}^2+\frac{1}{2}I_{cm}\dot{\varphi}^2-mgR(1-cos(\theta))\; (1)$$
From this i derive:
$$(\rm A)~\dot\theta^2=\frac{2g(1-\cos\theta)}{(k+1)R}~~\rightarrow~~(\rm B)~\ddot\theta=\frac{2g(1+\dot\theta\sin(\theta))}{2(k+1)R\dot\theta}$$
From:
$$m\ddot{\vec{R}}=-mR\dot{\theta}^2\cdot\hat{r}+mR\ddot{\theta}\cdot\hat{\theta}=(mgcos(\theta)-N)\cdot\hat{r}+(f-mgsin(\theta))\cdot\hat{\theta}$$
I derive:
$$\left\{ \begin{array}{l} N-mg\cos\theta=mR\dot\theta^2 \\ N\mu-mg\sin\theta=mR\ddot\theta \end{array} \right.$$
I insert B:
$$\mu g\cos\theta+\mu R\dot\theta^2-g\sin\theta=\frac{2g(1+\dot\theta\sin(\theta))}{2(k+1)\dot\theta}$$
It involves ##\dot\theta^3##
 
  • #84
Hey, as I've said, I came back to redeem myself. I totally neglected the nature of \mu and thus blundered spectacularly.
The solution to initial question "What should be the minimal friction coefficient at angle θ so that the ball won't slip?" I will mark with (*) for clarity. Now I will focus on understanding of the issue at hand.

Okay, so I will set up the whole problem as it was given in post #1, \theta begging from horizontal, initial velocity and rotation being equal to 0.

From initial system of equations: <br /> (1)\left\{\begin{matrix}<br /> mR\dot{\theta}^2=N-mg\, sin\theta\\ <br /> mR\ddot{\theta}=mg\,cos\theta-f\;\\<br /> <br /> f=\mu\,N\end{matrix}\right.<br />
One very important thing to notice is that \mu is a function of \theta,<br /> \mu=\left\{\begin{matrix}<br /> \mu_s(\theta)\\<br /> <br /> \mu_{k}=const.\end{matrix}\right.<br />
In interval between [0,\theta_{0}), the ball is slipping and \mu=\mu_{k}, from which you can find (with a bit of work and wolframalpha ) the following diff. equation:\ddot{\theta}+\mu_{k}\,\dot{\theta}^2=\frac{g}{R}(cos\theta-\mu_{k}\,sin\theta)\;,\dot{\theta}(0)=0\;,\theta(0)=0
and it's "solution" \dot{\theta}^2=\frac{2g}{R(4\mu_{k}^2+1)}(-3\mu_{k}e^{-2\mu_{k}\theta}+sin\theta\,(1-2\mu_{k}^2)+3\mu_{k}\,cos\theta)\;(2) From angle \theta_{0} ball is rolling and thus energy is conserved:\frac{1}{2}mR^2\dot{\theta}^2+\frac{1}{5}mR^2\dot\theta^2+mgR(1-sin\theta)=mgR(1-sin\theta_{0})+\frac{1}{2}mR^2\omega_{0}^2+\frac{1}{5}mR^2\omega_{0}^2 \Rightarrow \dot{\theta}^2=\frac{10g}{7R}(sin\theta-sin\theta_{0})+\omega_{0}^2\;(3)
From equation (1) and (3) you can find \mu_{s} for curiosity sake, notice how it depends on angle:\mu_{s}(\theta)=\frac{2\,cos\theta}{17\,sin\theta-10\,sin\theta_{0}+\frac{7R}{g}\omega_{0}^2}\;(*)
This really depressed me when I saw velocity dependence (which was against my assumption in previous post).
To find \omega_{0}^2 you simply need to plug in \theta_{0} in equation (2).

Friction "coefficient" really is the culprit of the problem. An idea came to my mind to take the derivate of (2) and (3) equate them and evaluate them at \theta_{0}. However, finding \mu_{k} explicitly is not possible. Maybe you could use Taylor expansion, but playing around with https://www.desmos.com/calculator ensured me that such \mu_{k} really does exist.

Cheers!
 
  • #85
VMP said:
From angle ##\theta_{0}## ball is rolling and thus energy is conserved:
$$\frac{1}{2}mR^2\dot{\theta}^2+\frac{1}{5}mR^2\dot\theta^2+mgR(1-sin\theta)=mgR(1-sin\theta_{0})+\frac{1}{2}mR^2\omega_{0}^2+\frac{1}{5}mR^2\omega_{0}^2$$
The second and third R's on the right side of the equation should be r's=the ball's radius, not R=the radius from the center of the bowl to the ball's center
 
  • #86
Karol said:
The second and third R's on the right side of the equation should be r's=the ball's radius, not R=the radius from the center of the bowl to the ball's center
No, first term is kinetic energy of CoM, second term is rotational kinetic energy. Recall, if the ball is rolling without slipping, then v_{cm}=R\dot{\theta}=r\dot{\varphi}.
 
  • #87
Right. but i get a different expression for ##\mu_s## but it's tedious. i understand you differentiated (3) to get ##\ddot\theta=\frac{1}{2}\cos\theta## and inserted it into
$$\ddot{\theta}+\mu_{k}\,\dot{\theta}^2=\frac{g}{R}(cos\theta-\mu_{k}\sin\theta)$$
You renamed ##\mu_k## to ##\mu_s##, right?
 
  • #88
Karol said:
Right. but i get a different expression for ##\mu_s## but it's tedious. i understand you differentiated (3) to get ##\ddot\theta=\frac{1}{2}\cos\theta## and inserted it into
$$\ddot{\theta}+\mu_{k}\,\dot{\theta}^2=\frac{g}{R}(cos\theta-\mu_{k}\sin\theta)$$
You renamed ##\mu_k## to ##\mu_s##, right?

Time derivative of equation (3) in post #84 is 2\dot{\theta}\ddot{\theta}=\frac{10g}{7R}cos\theta\dot{\theta}.
You'll have to be more specific with your last \mu related question.
 
  • #89
VMP said:
You'll have to be more specific with your last ##\mu## related question.
I mean in set of equations (1) ##\mu_k## appears, but in eq' (*) ##\mu_s##. i understand we can interchange between them when we deal with non slip.
 
  • #90
Karol said:
I mean in set of equations (1) ##\mu_k## appears, but in eq' (*) ##\mu_s##. i understand we can interchange between them when we deal with non slip.
In system of equations marked by (1) \mu is one function which is defined differently on different intervals.

For clarity sake: <br /> \mu(\theta)=\left\{\begin{matrix}<br /> (\,\mu_{k}=const.\,),[0,\theta_{0})\bigcup (\angle,\pi]\;(*)\\ <br /> <br /> \mu_{s}(\theta),[\theta_{0},\angle]\end{matrix}\right.<br /> Also, note that \mu_{s}^{(max)}\geq \mu_{k}

(*)\angle is just some arbitrary angle.

Cheers!
 
  • #91
after ##\theta_0## the ball reaches the other side of the bowl, to ##\pi-\theta_0##:
$$\mu_{s}(\pi-\theta_0)=\frac{2\,cos(\pi-\theta_0)}{17\,sin(\pi-\theta_0)-10\,sin\theta_{0}+\frac{7R}{g}\omega_{0}^2}=\frac{-2\cos\theta_0}{7\sin\theta_0+\frac{7R}{g}\omega_0^2}<0$$
Also how do you know that for this particular problem, not in general: ##\mu_{s}^{(max)}\geq \mu_{k}##
We don't know ##\mu_k## and not ##\mu_s## simce we don't know ##\theta_0## and ##\omega_0##
 
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