FusionJim
- 56
- 11
So here is the motional EMF formula. Now I understand the standard Faraday paradox that an axis symmetric field source (like a speaker motor ring magnet) has a magnetic field that is frame invariant under rotation around axis of symmetry. The field is static whether you rotate the magnet or not. So far so good. What puzzles me is this , there is a term average magnetic flux or "azimuthal mean" , this term describes the average magnetic field through the area swept by the rotating Faraday disc.
The Faraday disc voltage is an integral of the area swept by the rotor conductor in one full revolution. I understand the magnetic mean in the azimuthal direction to mean whether there is a net magnetic flux in a single direction within this area that is swept by the rotor conductor.
For example, if we had two stationary half ring magnets each having an opposite pole , then the disc would generate zero EMF as the two EMF's would create only eddy currents and cancel the total integral.
If we rotate this two pole magnet together with the disc then there are no eddy currents and also no EMF. Now there is no EMF not because the two opposite EMF contributions cancel but because the total field is equal in both directions and co-rotating.
This is the complicated part and also my question - what happens if we take a non axis symmetric magnet and rigidly co-rotate it with the disc in such a way that the disc surface area has a field in just one direction. Lets say for example a half ring magnet, it is attached to the disc and co-rotates with it.The flux is routed back outside the disc area. There is azimuthal mean flux through the disc, but the flux is co-rotating. Do I get an EMF in this case or no?
Thanks.