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What am I doing wrong here?
Let \psi be a ket whose representation in the X basis is given by
\psi(x)\ =\ \langle x|\psi\rangle\ =\ e^{-x^{2}/2}
Then
\psi(-x)\ =\ \langle -x|\psi\rangle\ =\ e^{-x^{2}/2}\ = \psi(x) (1)
But we also have:
\psi(-x)\ =\ \langle -x|\psi\rangle (2)
\ =\ \langle (-1)\times x)|\psi\rangle (3), by the linearity of the inner product
\ =\ (-1)^*\times\langle x|\psi\rangle (4)
\ =\ -\langle x|\psi\rangle (5)
\ = -\psi(x) (6)
and this contradicts (1).
I must have gone wrong here somewhere. I think it might be in (2) or (3). But I can't see the problem.
Thank you very much for any help.
Let \psi be a ket whose representation in the X basis is given by
\psi(x)\ =\ \langle x|\psi\rangle\ =\ e^{-x^{2}/2}
Then
\psi(-x)\ =\ \langle -x|\psi\rangle\ =\ e^{-x^{2}/2}\ = \psi(x) (1)
But we also have:
\psi(-x)\ =\ \langle -x|\psi\rangle (2)
\ =\ \langle (-1)\times x)|\psi\rangle (3), by the linearity of the inner product
\ =\ (-1)^*\times\langle x|\psi\rangle (4)
\ =\ -\langle x|\psi\rangle (5)
\ = -\psi(x) (6)
and this contradicts (1).
I must have gone wrong here somewhere. I think it might be in (2) or (3). But I can't see the problem.
Thank you very much for any help.