I learned that the moment a wavefunction collapse takes place is a matter of interpretation. So, I suppose the phenomenon 'wavefuntion collapse' is something that has to be witnessed by observation at some point to be able to establish it at all! So my question is: if collapse doesn't actually occur at whichever moment whatsoever, shouldn't we rather speak of a redistribution of probabilities, I mean that at the 'point' of measurement (the interaction of the measuring device with one single particle) the probability of the particle yielding a particular value(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); mixeswith the probability of the measuring devicemeasuringa particular value, without any need for the concept of a 'collapse' at any point, for that is an arbitrary assignment? That is: is the probability the particle has the value and that a particular value is measured temporarily narrowed, for it (the wavefuntion) to spread out again? I subquestion would be: what actuallyisdecoherence of the property of asingleparticle in the environment?

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# B Nature of collapse / does collapse exist?

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