Need a hint proving that integral converges

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The integral \(\int_0^{\pi/4} (\tan x)^{-\alpha} dx\) is finite for \(0 < \alpha < 1\) when evaluated as a Lebesgue integral. The discussion highlights the use of monotone convergence to analyze the integral over the interval from \(1/n\) to \(\pi/4\). The challenge lies in finding an anti-derivative for the function and addressing the poles at 0 and \(\pi/4\). A suggested approach is to identify a larger, integrable function with the same poles to facilitate the analysis.

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I am trying to prove that \int_0^{\pi/4} (\tan x)^{-\alpha} dx is finite for 0 &lt; \alpha &lt; 1, where the integral denotes the Lebesgue integral with the Lebesgue measure. I've decided wether it converges for all other values of \alpha\in\mathbb{R}, but am simply stuck with this one.

I've tried using monotone convergence to integrate over the closed interval from 1/n to pi/4, where I can use the Riemann integral, but I can't figure out how to find an anti-derivative for the function. I've also tried finding a larger, integrable function but without luck.

Any hints would be much appreciated.
 
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What happens if \alpha=1. Is that function integrable?
 
The only difficulty in this problem is the poles that the integrand has at 0 and pi/4, right? So find another function that has the same poles, and study that function, and the difference between it and your integrand.
 

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