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*correlations*; there is no true nonlocal

*causation*involved.

At the same time, the Bohmian interpretation is accused for being "too" nonlocal, by involving a true nonlocal

*causation*.

But what exactly the difference between

*correlation*and

*causation*is? Here I want to argue that there is no substantial difference at all. If my argument is correct, then Bohmian interpretation is not more (nor less) nonlocal than the standard correlation interpretation.

Here is the argument. For simplicity, consider the case of

*perfect*correlation. A perfect correlation always has the form

whenever system A has property P1, the system B has property P2

For example, whenever the left particle has spin up, the right particle has spin down.

But Bohmian nonlocality also has this form: Whenever the left particle has that position, the right particle on the other position has this velocity.

So where is the difference between Bohmian nonlocality and correlation nonlocality? What is the difference between causation and perfect correlation? I don't see any substantial difference. Do you?