Normalizing wavefunction obtained from Lorentzian wave packet

XProtocol
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Homework Statement
1. Consider a wave packet with $$ A(k) = \frac {N}{k^2 + \alpha^2} $$
where ##\alpha## is some positive constant. This is Lorentzian wave packet.

a. Find the form of ##\psi(x) ## (You may have to use your knowledge of contour integrals in Complex analysis)
b. Find normalization N such that $$ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx\left | \psi(x) \right |^2 = 1 $$
Relevant Equations
Wave obtained by superposing waves with different amplitude ##A(k)## depending on k is given by:
$$\psi(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} A(k)e^{ikx}dk $$
Part a: Using the above equation. I got
$$\psi(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{Ne^{ikx}}{k^2 + \alpha^2}dk $$

So basically I needed to solve above integral to get the wave function. To solve it, I used Jordan's Lemma & Cauchy Residue Theorem.
And obtained $$\psi(x) = \frac {N \pi e^{-x\alpha}}{\alpha} $$

For part b, I need to find value of N by solving the equation: $$ \frac {\pi ^2 N^2}{\alpha^2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-2x\alpha} dx = 1 $$
Which I obtained as $$|\psi(x)|^2 = \frac {N^2\pi^2}{\alpha^2} e^{-2x\alpha} $$
Now, this integral is not converging. So either my wavefunction is incorrect or I'm doing something wrong in part b. A friend of mine also got same ##\psi(x) ## due to which I'm really confused as to where could we be going wrong.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You didn't evaluate the contour integral correctly. You should have two contours, one for ##x>0## and one for ##x<0##.
 
  • Like
Likes vanhees71
I'm not able to understand why it will have two contours and not 1 i.e ##x = -\infty## to ## x=+\infty##. Can you please explain
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top