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dsdsuster
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Can anyone explain to me why the gaussian white noise term is multiplied by the square root of the time differential when we turn the Langevin differential equation into a finite difference equation for the purposes of integration?
http://pre.aps.org/pdf/PRE/v50/i6/p4404_1
The step I don't understand is the change in the last term in going from equation 3 to 4.
Any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks!
http://pre.aps.org/pdf/PRE/v50/i6/p4404_1
The step I don't understand is the change in the last term in going from equation 3 to 4.
Any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks!
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