- #1
Sefrez
- 126
- 0
Hopefully this is a simple question.
When a potential difference is applied, do charged particles begin to accelerate and then reach a terminal speed due to resistance where resistance would have to be proportional to that speed? In other words, if there was this magical material with zero resistance and a magical supplier, would i → ∞ as the equation shows?
When a potential difference is applied, do charged particles begin to accelerate and then reach a terminal speed due to resistance where resistance would have to be proportional to that speed? In other words, if there was this magical material with zero resistance and a magical supplier, would i → ∞ as the equation shows?