One-dimensional lattice (electrostatics)

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on understanding the potential energy in a one-dimensional lattice of charges. The original poster seeks clarification on the concept of potential energy for a single charge and how it relates to building a lattice. Responses confirm that the potential energy corresponds to the work done in assembling the system of charges from infinity to their positions. The conversation also touches on the mathematical formulation of potential energy as a sum of interactions between charges, emphasizing the infinite nature of the lattice. The poster proposes a method to calculate the total potential energy by summing contributions from nearest and next nearest charges, indicating a grasp of the underlying concepts.
asi123
Messages
254
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Hey guys.
So, I got this question in the pic.
First of all, I drew what I think to be a one-dimensional lattice (in the green box) but I'm not sure, is it right?
Second of all, I don't really understand the question, I mean I know that a potential energy of charge q is V(r) = kq/r when you say of curse that v(infinity) = 0 but what do they mean by a "potential energy of a single charge"?

Thanks in advance.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 

Attachments

  • 1.jpg
    1.jpg
    26.5 KB · Views: 397
Physics news on Phys.org
asi123 said:
First of all, I drew what I think to be a one-dimensional lattice (in the green box) but I'm not sure, is it right?
Your 1D lattice looks good to me.
asi123 said:
Second of all, I don't really understand the question, I mean I know that a potential energy of charge q is V(r) = kq/r when you say of curse that v(infinity) = 0 but what do they mean by a "potential energy of a single charge"?
You should be careful here, you have made a very common mistake. The potential of a point charge is given by the equation you quote. However, the potential energy is given by a different equation and corresponds to the work done moving a charge from infinity (or any other arbitrarily fixed point) to it's current location. For more information see here: http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/Hbase/electric/elepe.html#c3

Do you follow?
 
Hootenanny said:
Your 1D lattice looks good to me.

You should be careful here, you have made a very common mistake. The potential of a point charge is given by the equation you quote. However, the potential energy is given by a different equation and corresponds to the work done moving a charge from infinity (or any other arbitrarily fixed point) to it's current location. For more information see here: http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/Hbase/electric/elepe.html#c3

Do you follow?

Yeah I follow.
I know this kind of questions (how much energy does it take to build a sphere and such...)
However, I don't understand the question, is it, how much energy does it take to build this kind of lattice?

Thanks again.
 
asi123 said:
Yeah I follow.
I know this kind of questions (how much energy does it take to build a sphere and such...)
However, I don't understand the question, is it, how much energy does it take to build this kind of lattice?

Thanks again.
Yes you are correct, the potential energy of a system of charges is basically the energy required to build up the system (i.e. bring each charge from infinity to it's current position). This concept can be formalised as a sum (for N particles):

U = \kappa\sum_{\stackrel{i,j=1}{i\neq j}}^N \frac{q_iq_j}{\mathbf{r}_{ij}}

Where qi and qj are the charge of the ith and jth particle respectively. And rij is the relative position vector (or the separation distance in the 1D case) of the two particles. It is important to note that the sum excludes the case when the indices are equal.

In your case, we have an infinite lattice and hence an infinite sum. This is where the hint in the question comes in handy. Can you write rij in terms of b?
 
Hootenanny said:
Yes you are correct, the potential energy of a system of charges is basically the energy required to build up the system (i.e. bring each charge from infinity to it's current position). This concept can be formalised as a sum (for N particles):

U = \kappa\sum_{\stackrel{i,j=1}{i\neq j}}^N \frac{q_iq_j}{\mathbf{r}_{ij}}

Where qi and qj are the charge of the ith and jth particle respectively. And rij is the relative position vector (or the separation distance in the 1D case) of the two particles. It is important to note that the sum excludes the case when the indices are equal.

In your case, we have an infinite lattice and hence an infinite sum. This is where the hint in the question comes in handy. Can you write rij in terms of b?

Well, I was thinking about something like that:

The potential caused by two nearest charges:
V1 = -kq^2/b * 2
(multiply by 2 because there are two nearest charges)

Then the potential caused by two next charges:
V2 = kq^2/(2b) *2
(it's positive, because they have same sign)

And then:
V3 = -kq^2/(3b) *2
V4 = kq^2/(4b) *2
.
.
.

And sum all of these potential energy,
Vtot = V1 + V2 + V3 + ...
Vtot = 2*kq^2/b (-1+1/2-1/3+1/4-1/5+...)

Is this right?

Thanks a lot BTW
 
I multiplied the values first without the error limit. Got 19.38. rounded it off to 2 significant figures since the given data has 2 significant figures. So = 19. For error I used the above formula. It comes out about 1.48. Now my question is. Should I write the answer as 19±1.5 (rounding 1.48 to 2 significant figures) OR should I write it as 19±1. So in short, should the error have same number of significant figures as the mean value or should it have the same number of decimal places as...
Thread 'A cylinder connected to a hanging mass'
Let's declare that for the cylinder, mass = M = 10 kg Radius = R = 4 m For the wall and the floor, Friction coeff = ##\mu## = 0.5 For the hanging mass, mass = m = 11 kg First, we divide the force according to their respective plane (x and y thing, correct me if I'm wrong) and according to which, cylinder or the hanging mass, they're working on. Force on the hanging mass $$mg - T = ma$$ Force(Cylinder) on y $$N_f + f_w - Mg = 0$$ Force(Cylinder) on x $$T + f_f - N_w = Ma$$ There's also...
Back
Top