Orthogonality of Legendre Polynomials from Jackson

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the derivation of Legendre Polynomials from Jackson's Classical Electrodynamics, specifically focusing on an integration by parts step in the proof. The user struggles with understanding how Jackson transitions from an orthogonality statement to a subsequent equation. Through clarification, it is explained that integration by parts can be applied, leading to a zero result for the boundary term. The user ultimately experiences an "aha!" moment, realizing their misunderstanding and expressing gratitude for the assistance. The conversation highlights the importance of integration techniques in mathematical proofs.
Demon117
Messages
162
Reaction score
1
Hello all!

I am trying to work through and understand the derivation of the Legendre Polynomials from Jackson's Classical electrodynamics. I have reached a part that I cannot get through however. Jackson starts with the following orthogonality statement and jumps (as it seems) in his proof:

Equation 3.17 states:

\int P_{l'}[\frac{d}{dx} ([1-x^{2}]\frac{dP_{l}}{dx})+l(l+1)P_{l}(x)]dx=0

He mentions integration by parts on the "first term" but I don't see how he gets to

Equation 3.18:

\int [(x^{2}-1)\frac{dP_{l}}{dx} \frac{dP_{l'}}{dx} +l(l+1)(P_{l'}(x)P_{l}(x))]dx=0

I don't see this. Could someone please explain or give a hint to the intermediate step here? I'm afraid I just do not see it. Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You understand integration by parts, yes? To wit,

\int udv = uv-\int vdu

So by the chain rule we can also say

\int u \frac{dv}{dx}dx = uv-\int v \frac{du}{dx}dx

So it is easy to see that u=P_{\ell'} and v=\left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right]. In this manner we arrive at

\int_{-1}^1 P_{\ell'} \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] dx = \left. P_{\ell'} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \right|^{x=1}_{x=-1} - \int_{-1}^1 \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \frac{d P_{\ell'}}{dx} dx

The first term works out to be zero obviously and thus we say that,

\int_{-1}^1 P_{\ell'} \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] dx = \int_{-1}^1 \left[ \left(x^2-1\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \frac{d P_{\ell'}}{dx} dx
 
Born2bwire said:
You understand integration by parts, yes? To wit,

\int udv = uv-\int vdu

So by the chain rule we can also say

\int u \frac{dv}{dx}dx = uv-\int v \frac{du}{dx}dx

So it is easy to see that u=P_{\ell'} and v=\left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right]. In this manner we arrive at

\int_{-1}^1 P_{\ell'} \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] dx = \left. P_{\ell'} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \right|^{x=1}_{x=-1} - \int_{-1}^1 \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \frac{d P_{\ell'}}{dx} dx

The first term works out to be zero obviously and thus we say that,

\int_{-1}^1 P_{\ell'} \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] dx = \int_{-1}^1 \left[ \left(x^2-1\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \frac{d P_{\ell'}}{dx} dx

Of course I understand Integration by parts, and in fact I just barely started it myself so this whole conversation is null. Thank you for your time, but I just had an aha! moment :) Sorry about that.
 
Thread 'Gauss' law seems to imply instantaneous electric field'
Imagine a charged sphere at the origin connected through an open switch to a vertical grounded wire. We wish to find an expression for the horizontal component of the electric field at a distance ##\mathbf{r}## from the sphere as it discharges. By using the Lorenz gauge condition: $$\nabla \cdot \mathbf{A} + \frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}=0\tag{1}$$ we find the following retarded solutions to the Maxwell equations If we assume that...
Maxwell’s equations imply the following wave equation for the electric field $$\nabla^2\mathbf{E}-\frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial^2\mathbf{E}}{\partial t^2} = \frac{1}{\varepsilon_0}\nabla\rho+\mu_0\frac{\partial\mathbf J}{\partial t}.\tag{1}$$ I wonder if eqn.##(1)## can be split into the following transverse part $$\nabla^2\mathbf{E}_T-\frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial^2\mathbf{E}_T}{\partial t^2} = \mu_0\frac{\partial\mathbf{J}_T}{\partial t}\tag{2}$$ and longitudinal part...
Back
Top