Particle in semi infinite potential well

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving the Schrödinger Equation (SE) for a particle in a semi-infinite potential well, specifically addressing the confusion regarding the general solution forms. The participant notes that while the book presents the solution as a combination of exponential functions, the lecture notes utilize trigonometric functions. Both forms are equivalent, as demonstrated through the relationship between exponential and trigonometric functions. The key takeaway is that the general solution inside the well can be expressed as either \( \psi = A e^{ikx} + B e^{-ikx} \) or \( \psi = C \cos(kx) + D \sin(kx) \), where constants A, B, C, and D are arbitrary.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Schrödinger Equation (SE)
  • Familiarity with quantum mechanics concepts, specifically potential wells
  • Knowledge of complex numbers and their relation to trigonometric functions
  • Ability to manipulate and solve differential equations
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Schrödinger Equation for different potential wells
  • Learn about boundary conditions in quantum mechanics
  • Explore the mathematical relationship between exponential and trigonometric functions
  • Investigate the implications of quantum mechanics in real-world applications
USEFUL FOR

Students of quantum mechanics, physics educators, and anyone interested in the mathematical foundations of quantum systems will benefit from this discussion.

leonne
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Homework Statement


particle moving in the semi infinite potentail well set up and solve SE for the system assume E<Vo

Homework Equations


(-h2/2m) d2\psi/dx2 +v(x)\psi=E\psi

The Attempt at a Solution


so in reagion one its infinite so \psi=0. reagion 2 is what i am confused about. looking through the book i saw the gen solution for inside the well to be \psi=Ae(ikx)+Be-(ikx) but for this problem its Acos(kx)+Bsin(kx)
in the book does not really show how it finds the gen solution. I am just a little confused on how you would solve the SE well i know for inside v=0 and i plug that into SE and from that the book just goes to the gen solution
thanks

edit after looking at lecture note i see he uses the cos for the inside , but in they book for the same infinite pot well they use the e^ are they the same?
 
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The solutions are equivalent. They're just being expressed in different bases.
\begin{align*}
A e^{ikx} + B e^{-ikx} &= A(\cos kx+i\sin kx)+B(\cos kx-i\sin kx) \\
&= (A+B)\cos kx + i(A-B)\sin kx \\
&= C \cos kx + D \sin kx
\end{align*}Since A and B are arbitrary constants, C=A+B and D=i(A-B) are as well.
 
o ok thxs
 

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